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And god also uses MANY different names when referring to self..is each one a different person?
Did you honestly read the question you just asked? God uses many different names when referring to himself. It's one person.
In the OT, each time he uses a different name for himself, it's to emphasize a particular attribute. It's not a different God, or even a different person in the Godhead. The Bible is clear that there is ONLY one God, and ONLY 3 persons are ever described within the Godhead.
I would encourage you to read the Gospel of John, Paul's letter to the Colossians, and Revelation. Jesus is clearly called God, he called himself God, and the Jews tried to stone him for it.
I've read them all, many times...Not just read, but studied, questioned, reasoned...Well, if Jesus has a god, then how can he be god also?...How can he be god when he himself stated that the Father was greater than him?...
Nowhere is Jesus clearly called G-d, and you know it...
If you had read and understood the parable of the vineyard owner that sent many of his servants to collect rent unsuccessfully and finally figured that if he sent his son that they would comply but they killed him, you would see why they attempted to stone him...He was the Shaliach of G-d...This does not make him G-d...
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If you don't believe the Bible...so be it. I recognize you don't claim to be a Christian. Yet, you're here on the Christianity forum trying to tell us what our Scriptures say.[/quote]
I do believe the bible, the Hebrew bible, which is where Christianity allegedly derives from...However, your claim of a connection to the G-d of Judaism is false in Christianity's present form...The way it is now, Christianity is a totally separate religion as far divorced from Judaism as is Hinduism or Buddhism...Your ideas come from an edited version of the Hebrew Scriptures, so if they are edited then they are not accurate...Christianity at best is a religion loosely based on Judaism and not deriving from Judaism...The understanding of the Christian religion of today stems from many diverse doctrines and opinions of others...This is why there are 40K + denominations globally...Fact is, the RCC labelled the Ebonites as heretics, which is ironic seeing as how they derived from the Jerusalem council led by James the Just, the brother of Jesus, and who better to know and understand what his brother meant and to be able to pass it on?...But, yet their doctrines clashed with the doctrines of the Trinity so they were labelled heretics, when it should have been the other way around, those who espoused the Trinity doctrine should have been labelled heretics seeing as how the trinity doctrine did not come about until 325 CE...
Ebonite:
Ebionites, or Ebionaioi, is a patristic term referring to a Jewish Christian movement that existed during the early centuries of the Christian Era. They regarded Jesus of Nazareth as the Messiah while rejecting his divinity and insisted on the necessity of following Jewish law and rites.
They are 3 different Persons, and 1 God. God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit. Scripture refers to all 3 as persons -- and it describes each having a will, each having intellect, can be offended, can influence others, etc. But all 3 are called God--but we also know that there is only 1 God. The logical conclusion is that we believe Scripture and we realize that there is only God, and 3 persons within that Godhead.
So, you are saying that if you pray to one of those three that you are praying to all three?...
That verse has been proven to be an interpolation and not in any earlier manuscripts...
Even if that were the case....so what? Do you know that it wasn't in the original? Perhaps it was erroneously removed from a branch of early manuscripts while another branch had it correctly in it. You're making assumptions there about things you don't have a clue about.
And this is what I mean by deliberate obtuseness...
Quote:
Do you know that it wasn't in the original? Perhaps it was erroneously removed from a branch of early manuscripts while another branch had it correctly in it. You're making assumptions there about things you don't have a clue about.
Sure, I have a clue...If that verse was not in the earlier manuscripts then it was inserted at a later date...You can make up all kinds of wonderful fiction to make that square peg fit into that round hole, however, it just doesn't fit...Just like you claim that Jesus called himself G-d, when he didn't...You have no proof...
I make no assumptions, I just go by what is there...You are the one making assumptions based on others opinions without ascertaining the validity of those opinions...
Did you honestly read the question you just asked? God uses many different names when referring to himself. It's one person.
In the OT, each time he uses a different name for himself, it's to emphasize a particular attribute. It's not a different God, or even a different person in the Godhead. The Bible is clear that there is ONLY one God, and ONLY 3 persons are ever described within the Godhead.
Where are these three persons in the Godhead described in your COT?...
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