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Was overhearing a interesting conversation and have heard this before but never really read into it.
Acts 12:1-4 (KJV) 1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
If the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover in this verse, it kinds doesn't make sense to say, there were the days of Unleavended bread, which Passover comes before and then Herod wants to wait until after Passover to bring Peter forth to the people, when that day has already passed, if the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover instead.
Alot of people argue that Easter, is incorrect and should have been Passover in this verse. But when looking at the context and the times, seeing that Easter usually comes after Passover & Unleavened Bread and that Herod was more than likely a Pagan, was the word Easter correct in the KJV and that Herod was celebrating the Pagan Festival Easter and all the stuff the pagans celebrated back then vs what modern day Christianity celebrates today in Easter?
So were the writers of the KJV seeing Easter as a Pagan celebration back then and is the only time we see that word in the bible more of a negative context than what we see it as now?
Was overhearing a interesting conversation and have heard this before but never really read into it.
Acts 12:1-4 (KJV) 1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
If the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover in this verse, it kinds doesn't make sense to say, there were the days of Unleavended bread, which Passover comes before and then Herod wants to wait until after Passover to bring Peter forth to the people, when that day has already passed, if the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover instead.
Alot of people argue that Easter, is incorrect and should have been Passover in this verse. But when looking at the context and the times, seeing that Easter usually comes after Passover & Unleavened Bread and that Herod was more than likely a Pagan, was the word Easter correct in the KJV and that Herod was celebrating the Pagan Festival Easter and all the stuff the pagans celebrated back then vs what modern day Christianity celebrates today in Easter?
So were the writers of the KJV seeing Easter as a Pagan celebration back then and is the only time we see that word in the bible more of a negative context than what we see it as now?
I'd suggest using a more literal translation. The Greek word is "pascha", translated in the ESV says "after Passover", as does the NASB. The KJV is not a particularly accurate translation.
I'd suggest using a more literal translation. The Greek word is "pascha", translated in the ESV says "after Passover", as does the NASB. The KJV is not a particularly accurate translation.
So true but many can't admit it because then other teachings would fail.
Jesus was arrested at Passover, the fourteenth of the first month. Passover is a Jewish holy day. Jesus, being a Jew, had to come to Jerusalem three times for it is required.
Easter, a Christian tradition, commemorates the arrest of Jesus, His crucifixion, and His resurrection.
Was overhearing a interesting conversation and have heard this before but never really read into it.
Acts 12:1-4 (KJV) 1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
If the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover in this verse, it kinds doesn't make sense to say, there were the days of Unleavended bread, which Passover comes before and then Herod wants to wait until after Passover to bring Peter forth to the people, when that day has already passed, if the word Easter was really supposed to be Passover instead.
Alot of people argue that Easter, is incorrect and should have been Passover in this verse. But when looking at the context and the times, seeing that Easter usually comes after Passover & Unleavened Bread and that Herod was more than likely a Pagan, was the word Easter correct in the KJV and that Herod was celebrating the Pagan Festival Easter and all the stuff the pagans celebrated back then vs what modern day Christianity celebrates today in Easter?
So were the writers of the KJV seeing Easter as a Pagan celebration back then and is the only time we see that word in the bible more of a negative context than what we see it as now?
Obviously it is suppose to read Passover and not Easter..... and has nothing to do with Pagan and Paganism.
The KJV is by far the best version, but as you have shown there are some mis-translations..... but dont whatever you do become a word interpeter, word twister, in trying to say you know the truth because of semantics and WORD derivations, that is a Protestant trip off and self righteousness trip.
Going to bible school and their cemeteries does not make one wiser and more right, becoming a missionary and learning from Jesus by doing His words, gives you wisdom and discernment from direct experience.
Easter is a made up word for Sunday worship, besides it does fulfill the three days and three night truthful prophecy fulfillment of the Lord.
Lets see if I can show a Holy Day Festival attachment that shows timing between Hebrew holy days and Christian events
There you be, lets see if I am allowed to do so, as it says on my lower screen that I can attach attachments... Im just obeying what it says and showing my attachment ( I mean my attachment above not below...)
THEREIN you can see Passover Week, Crucifixion, etc....
Not the term Easter in Acts 12 was not a pagan celebration in the bible as it was referring to the Passover celebration , as the term Easter refers to the Son of man who is the prophetic prince who comes through the Eastern wall to bring redemption to the people which Jesus did as he stayed in the mount of olives which is were the eastern wall is ............... Then the term pagan is reference to people which reject Christianity Judaism, Islam in the intellectual world ............ So the term Easter is a Christian name or the sacrifice of Jesus Christ at the time of Passover .... See Easter in the KVJ bible is not the easter bunny of the lost world celebration who borrowed the name
Correct Easter as a name came from paganism, not Christianity. The use in the KJV was because the church had accepted a pagan doctrine/practice and tied it to Jesus to draw people in. Definitely unscriptural and denigrating Jesus. No such celebration is ever listed for Christians in the Bible nor directed. Passover is a Jewish celebration not a Christian one.
I mean, Easter was/is a pagan celebration. The very name Easter drives from the name of an ancient fertility Goddess (hence the eggs.)
Many aspects of Christmas also have their basis in pre-Christian, pagan traditions.
Many saints began life as pagan deities.
This isn't supposotion; it's history.
But Luke didn't use the word "Easter" in original Greek when he wrote it. Do you realize that? That word was not part of the text until it was translated some 1600 years later and inserted into the passage.
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