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Homosexual "sexual intercourse" does not produce children; because it is not based on love but on lust. It cannot be based on love; for it is an aberration that defiles the image of God in creation (Genesis 1:27).
For God is love; and those who are committing what is an abomination to God cannot be acting in love.
Of course, I am talking about the kind of love that Jesus had for us when He went to the Cross to take the penalty for our sins (agape).
Homosexual love is not even phileo or storge. You can have phileo and storge between members of the same sex apart from eros being involved. As soon as eros is involved, it is eros all the way.
These words (phileo, storge, eros) ^ will simply fly over the heads of both gay and straight people who are hard-wired to desire sex. Your usage of 'love' and 'lust' in this matter is ridiculous since no one can possibly play the arbiter role for each individual to determine which is which where sex is involved. Why do you even bother? It really IS a waste of everyone's time covering the same ground over and over and arriving at the same spot. If you don't agree with gay sex then don't participate in it. If others choose to do so because they are hard-wired in that direction then leave them to it. Your persistency in using ancient texts with which to condemn, written by men whose knowledge of human sexuality and many other issues was (quite naturally) sorely limited, is ludicrous.
* Despite my support and defense of the gay community, today's obsession with sex and sex being used as a commodity rather than as an aspect of an intimate interpersonal relationship IS NOT something that I support. For what it's worth, I just wanted to put that out there.
These words (phileo, storge, eros) ^ will simply fly over the heads of both gay and straight people who are hard-wired to desire sex. Your usage of 'love' and 'lust' in this matter is ridiculous since no one can possibly play the arbiter role for each individual to determine which is which where sex is involved. Why do you even bother? It really IS a waste of everyone's time covering the same ground over and over and arriving at the same spot. If you don't agree with gay sex then don't participate in it. If others choose to do so because they are hard-wired in that direction then leave them to it. Your persistency in using ancient texts with which to condemn, written by men whose knowledge of human sexuality and many other issues was (quite naturally) sorely limited, is ludicrous.
* Despite my support and defense of the gay community, today's obsession with sex and sex being used as a commodity rather than as an aspect of an intimate interpersonal relationship IS NOT something that I support. For what it's worth, I just wanted to put that out there.
It should be clear that the Lord Himself condemns homosexual sex; calling it an "abomination".
And if you see that there are many other things that are said by God to be an abomination, is that not reason enough to avoid those things the same way that I am telling you to avoid homosexual sex?
I don't agree with gay sex and yet there came a time when I was forced to participate in it for I was homosexually raped by someone. I didn't have a choice in the matter; except that I kicked that guy's *ss after the fact.
(he finagled his way into being my roommate at the board and care where I was staying and jumped on me when I was sleeping. I was unsuspecting because I didn't know that he was a homosexual offender until he actually offended against me).
So, for those who are raped, they may indeed have every inclination to despise homosexuality and yet when they are raped homosexually, it is a crime committed against them.
I will happy to find out that the dude who raped me is condemned by God on the final day. Because I don't forgive him (see John 20:22-23).
These words (phileo, storge, eros) ^ will simply fly over the heads of both gay and straight people who are hard-wired to desire sex. Your usage of 'love' and 'lust' in this matter is ridiculous since no one can possibly play the arbiter role for each individual to determine which is which where sex is involved. Why do you even bother? It really IS a waste of everyone's time covering the same ground over and over and arriving at the same spot. If you don't agree with gay sex then don't participate in it. If others choose to do so because they are hard-wired in that direction then leave them to it. Your persistency in using ancient texts with which to condemn, written by men whose knowledge of human sexuality and many other issues was (quite naturally) sorely limited, is ludicrous.
* Despite my support and defense of the gay community, today's obsession with sex and sex being used as a commodity rather than as an aspect of an intimate interpersonal relationship IS NOT something that I support. For what it's worth, I just wanted to put that out there.
Quote:
Originally Posted by justbyfaith
It should be clear that the Lord Himself condemns homosexual sex; calling it an "abomination".
There are only two places where 'the Lord' refers to 'man lying with man as with woman'. We find these scriptures in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 ...both similar. There is no place else in the entire Bible where 'the Lord' condemns ''whatever it was' that prompted the Leviticus texts to have been given to the Levite Tribe in the first instance.
Who WERE these males who were, apparently, laying with other males as with a woman, jbf? Were they members of the Levite Tribe or were they members of the pagan communities who, if so, worshiped idols rather than God and performed sexual rituals to these idols with male temple prostitutes? Evidently 'something' was going on somewhere that prompted 'God' to have given this warning to the Levites 'not to be like the pagans'. What was it that the pagans were doing regarding these apparent 'man lying with man' practices?
Yes, what, precisely, ARE verses 18:22 and 20:13 referring to, jbf? A mere reading really doesn't shed light as to what they actually mean and as to the reason they were given 'by God' to the Levites. WHO was it that was doing WHAT to WHOM? Do the Leviticus texts apply to we of today or were they solely intended for the people to whom they were given? In fact, why were 'instructions' pertaining to moral conduct, etc. etc. communicated only to the Levites ...why were they not also given to the pagan communities?
Quote:
Originally Posted by justbyfaith
And if you see that there are many other things that are said by God to be an abomination, is that not reason enough to avoid those things the same way that I am telling you to avoid homosexual sex?
Well, for starters I'm not into homosexual sex so no point in telling me to avoid it. As for the 'other abominations' mentioned in the Bible ...well, it's a moot argument isn't it? Few would pay any attention to them whether they be Christian or not. In fact, the ONLY 'abomination' known to most Christians is the one they persistently aim at the gay community!
Quote:
Originally Posted by justbyfaith
I don't agree with gay sex and yet there came a time when I was forced to participate in it for I was homosexually raped by someone. I didn't have a choice in the matter; except that I kicked that guy's *ss after the fact.
* snip *
Not to be insensitive but one's personal experience/s or anecdotal accounts have no bearing on this particular thread topic.
You know, while it has occurred to me in thought now and again in the past, I'll bring this out in the open and ask: while the Jews were God's favored people and received His commands and instructions to apply to their lives, we don't see in the Bible where other nations were favored similarly by God. These nations DON'T appear, not from a Bible reading anyway, to have been given God's commands and instructions to apply to THEIR lives. And yet, God appears to regard them as Israel's enemies because they (apparently) disregard His supremacy and prefer to worship man-made idols ...i.e. "Don't be like the pagans."
Where are we ever told (in the Bible) where ALL the nations of the world were notified (a) that God ALONE is to be worshiped, (b) that they ever received a copy of the Ten Commandments and the other statutes and instructions that were given to the Jews, and (c) that accountability in the form of punishment applied to them when they were in violation of these laws - laws that we are never told they received in the first place? Seriously, were these pagan tribes a part of God's creation process or weren't they?
Are WE today any more accountable than were the pagans for our disobedience toward those laws, directives, etc. that were SOLELY - it would seem - given to the Jewish people? Does ANY of the Old Testament apply to us at all? Need I consult a rabbi?
You know, while it has occurred to me in thought now and again in the past, I'll bring this out in the open and ask: while the Jews were God's favored people and received His commands and instructions to apply to their lives, we don't see in the Bible where other nations were favored similarly by God. These nations DON'T appear, not from a Bible reading anyway, to have been given God's commands and instructions to apply to THEIR lives. And yet, God appears to regard them as Israel's enemies because they (apparently) disregard His supremacy and prefer to worship man-made idols ...i.e. "Don't be like the pagans."
Where are we ever told (in the Bible) where ALL the nations of the world were notified (a) that God ALONE is to be worshiped, (b) that they ever received a copy of the Ten Commandments and the other statutes and instructions that were given to the Jews, and (c) that accountability in the form of punishment applied to them when they were in violation of these laws - laws that we are never told they received in the first place? Seriously, were these pagan tribes a part of God's creation process or weren't they?
Are WE today any more accountable than were the pagans for our disobedience toward those laws, directives, etc. that were SOLELY - it would seem - given to the Jewish people? Does ANY of the Old Testament apply to us at all? Need I consult a rabbi?
All the world will be found guilty before God as the result of being compared in its behaviour to the law of Moses (Romans 3:19-20).
Therefore the law does apply to unbelieving Gentiles as Gentiles will be judged by it as to whether they were sinners or not; since by the law is the knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20) and sin is the transgression of the law (1 John 3:4).
The law is read in the synagogues every sabbath day and this was given as a reason why Gentiles were not to be given the law as an extra yoke over and above their commitment to Christ and the Cross.
It was accepted that the law of Moses would be known to the people; and it is also very true that in today's world, Judeo-Christian values are the norm as a standard of morality. Not only is the law read every sabbath in every synagogue; but it is also taught in most churches as a matter of course.
My last post before I posted here again was on May 15, 2022.
It is currently June 8, 2022.
That is not a few seconds.
But you didn't get a rise on May 15 and you felt the need to try again.
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