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Though I was raised believing in it, the concept has fallen out of favor lately.
Plus, I recently learned the whole idea is only about 100 or so years old.
The scholars I've been reading/watching don't give it credence.
It's closer to 200 years old, though it's only been widespread in the US for closer to 100 years.
John Nelson Darby invented it around the 1830s. He was an English preacher. The rapture idea didn't become popular in the US until the Scofield Reference Bible came out in the early 1900s. My parents had one when I was a kid.
Though I was raised believing in it, the concept has fallen out of favor lately.
Plus, I recently learned the whole idea is only about 100 or so years old.
The scholars I've been reading/watching don't give it credence.
The rapture of the church is quite biblical regardless of how much it has fallen out of favor with scholarship. It was not invented by Darby who simply recognized it in the bible. You have to understand the following.
The English term 'rapture' comes from the Latin word 'rapiemur' which is the Latin translation of the Greek word 'ἁρπάζω/harpazó in 1 Thessalonians 4:17. It means to be caught up or snatched away.
I Thessalonicenses 4:17 Latin: Vulgata Clementina
Deinde nos, qui vivimus, qui relinquimur, simul rapiemur c um illis in nubibus obviam Christo in aëra, et sic semper c um Domino erimus.
The event we call the rapture is what Paul was referring to in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 in which he refers to us being caught up in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. Paul doesn't say that we remain in the air. The idea is that once having been caught up in the air we then go to heaven until the end of the Tribulation at which time we will return with Jesus to the earth.
So to say that the rapture is unbiblical is to ignore Paul's statement of being ''caught up.'' To be caught up to meet the Lord in the air and to be with him always is the rapture.
Now go to Revelation and you can see that the church is mentioned before the Tribulation and after the Tribulation where it is called the bride of Christ, but the church is not mentioned during the period that the Tribulation is taking place, inferring that the church is not on the earth during the Tribulation.
The rapture of the church is quite biblical regardless of how much it has fallen out of favor with scholarship. It was not invented by Darby who simply recognized it in the bible. You have to understand the following.
The English term 'rapture' comes from the Latin word 'rapiemur' which is the Latin translation of the Greek word 'ἁρπάζω/harpazó in 1 Thessalonians 4:17. It means to be caught up or snatched away.
I Thessalonicenses 4:17 Latin: Vulgata Clementina
Deinde nos, qui vivimus, qui relinquimur, simul rapiemur c um illis in nubibus obviam Christo in aëra, et sic semper c um Domino erimus.
The event we call the rapture is what Paul was referring to in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 in which he refers to us being caught up in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. Paul doesn't say that we remain in the air. The idea is that once having been caught up in the air we then go to heaven until the end of the Tribulation at which time we will return with Jesus to the earth.
So to say that the rapture is unbiblical is to ignore Paul's statement of being ''caught up.'' To be caught up to meet the Lord in the air and to be with him always is the rapture.
Now go to Revelation and you can see that the church is mentioned before the Tribulation and after the Tribulation where it is called the bride of Christ, but the church is not mentioned during the period that the Tribulation is taking place, inferring that the church is not on the earth during the Tribulation.
Thanks, Michael. I know there is that one verse that the whole idea is based on. But I have heard other translations of that verse that indicate he was referring to Roman invasion, that one person could be "snatched up" while the other was left standing---that was to terrify the Jews.
Has anyone else heard this take on that particular verse?
Paul is speaking of the Second Coming and the general resurrection of the dead.
He's saying that those who are living at the time will be instantaneously changed (i.e. glorified) along with the dead who are resurrected to life. The Thessalonians were probably expecting the Second Coming to take place soon (within their lifetime), and were concerned about what would happen to their corruptible bodies if their dead brothers were resurrected to glorified bodies while they were still alive. It has nothing to do with any kind of "rapture" in the Darbyite sense.
Thanks, Michael. I know there is that one verse that the whole idea is based on. But I have heard other translations of that verse that indicate he was referring to Roman invasion, that one person could be "snatched up" while the other was left standing---that was to terrify the Jews.
Has anyone else heard this take on that particular verse?
Actually, 1 Thessalonians 4:17 is not the only passage on which the rapture is based (Note also that the rest of that passage speaks of the resurrection). The rapture of the church takes place at the same time as the resurrection of the church.
But a passage which has been identified as a parallel rapture passage is John 14:1-3. If you are interested the details are provided in the link below. Note the parallels between John 14:1-3 and 1 Thessalonians 4:17 in the side-by-side diagram and draw your own conclusion.
Notice also that in 1 Thessalonians 4:13- 18 the rapture- the catching away occurs before the 'Day of the Lord' begins in which the wrath of God is poured out on the earth - which Paul speaks of in chapter 5.
The order being the rapture, the Tribulation, the return of Jesus with the church to the earth. The pre-tribulation view of the rapture best agrees with the scriptures.
Last edited by Michael Way; 09-15-2021 at 04:06 PM..
Thanks, Michael. I know there is that one verse that the whole idea is based on. But I have heard other translations of that verse that indicate he was referring to Roman invasion, that one person could be "snatched up" while the other was left standing---that was to terrify the Jews.
Has anyone else heard this take on that particular verse?
No, but interesting and significant in my opinion
The administrations of the church were set up from the beginning, and there is certainly definite Inherited division between the Roman/Jewish/gentile parts especially since the 1500’s
I see a lot of things corporately/developmentally
Last edited by Meerkat2; 09-15-2021 at 04:18 PM..
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