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Could you possibly provide a bible passage to support this theory?
When the Bible supports something it is usually very clear about it you know.
I would of thought that was obvious, for example, if pleasure was God's primary purpose for sex, then He wouldn't have made so many rules preventing the search and maximization of that pleasure
What was said by conconcurrence--not command? I look at the context. In vs 1, 2 Paul is telling them that it is good for a man not to touch a woman, but because of immoralities, let each man have his own wife and let each woman have her own husband. Then he talks about the marital duties. Later in vs. 7, he says that he wishes that all men were as hs was, however, each has his own gift from God. This means to me that he did not command that all men have a wife or that all women have a husband. Later he says that it is good for the unmarried widows to remain as he was but... if they they did not have self control, they were to marry. God bless.
I think you are misreading the passage, by implying, that's all he meant
Last edited by Chef Boyardee; 11-27-2008 at 07:31 PM..
So let's say I have never read the Bible and grew up in a home where Christianity was never taught or encouraged. One day I visit a friend's house and sit down next to one on his coffee table. My friend's neighbor pays him a visit and he goes to the door for, say, 24 minutes. I get bored and pick up the Bible and by divine providence, I open up to the Songs of Solomon. Would I, at first, second or the eighteenth reading ever come away with the idea that the verses are speaking about "God's love for his church?"
So let's say I have never read the Bible and grew up in a home where Christianity was never taught or encouraged. One day I visit a friend's house and sit down next to one on his coffee table. My friend's neighbor pays him a visit and he goes to the door for, say, 24 minutes. I get bored and pick up the Bible and by divine providence, I open up to the Songs of Solomon. Would I, at first, second or the eighteenth reading ever come away with the idea that the verses are speaking about "God's love for his church?"
Depends on how long it takes the Holy Spirit to reveal the truth to you
I think you are misreading the passage, by implying, that's all he meant
Maybe we are understanding it differently, Chef Boyardee. I am looking at the context. He could have also meant that it was not a command to stay single. I am reading as a note in my Bible that some ancient manuscripts have translated vs7 as "for I wish that all men were even as I myself am.." (single, at least at the time that he wrote this), meaning that he says by way of concession not command vs. 2 "Because of immoralities, let each man have his own wife..." He would like for all to be as he is (vs7), but if they do not have self control, it is okay for them to marry. God bless.
Last edited by ShanaBrown; 11-27-2008 at 08:37 PM..
I would of thought that was obvious, for example, if pleasure was God's primary purpose for sex, then He wouldn't have made so many rules preventing the search and maximization of that pleasure
God made rules restricting the search for pleasure?
Priests offering sacrifice could not marry widows, or non-Judeans.
Otherwise a man could marry any female, and as many females as he could afford.
Once married there is no restriction upon what happens. The marriage bed remains undefiled.
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