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Originally posted by urbanlemur
I believe it has a two fold meaning: one regarding the love between a man and woman and also about Jesus and His church.
Yep. What he/she said. Though I've never heard the "Jesus/Church" interpretation. I've only heard it presented as "The christians guide to hot sex". (pardon my bluntness) I'd be interested to hear more about how the Song represents the love Christ has for the church, if anyone here can explain.
I would frame the question: does The Bible support sex for pleasure's sake or not?
Song of Solomon seems like a virgin bride looking forward to her wedding night. Of course, that would have produced a child. It does appear that sex is primarily for making babies and The Bible seems to support that. So, pleasure seems to be secondary.
In Genesis 3 God tells Eve that her desire will be for her husband and he will rule over her. Song of Solomon seems consistent with that. Adam receives no such curse. So, husbands letting their desire for their wife rule them, seem debauched and, it would seem, wives rejecting their husbands, seem "repressed."
Last edited by Chef Boyardee; 11-27-2008 at 10:30 AM..
1 Corinthians 7:2-5.
"But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband. The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control."
The man and the woman have sexual needs, which are pleasurable, and they become one flesh when they are married. The needs are to be fulfilled within the marriage. Whether fulfillment of sexual needs is primary or secondary it is important and to be fulfilled by the marriage partner.
What was said by conconcurrence--not command? I look at the context. In vs 1, 2 Paul is telling them that it is good for a man not to touch a woman, but because of immoralities, let each man have his own wife and let each woman have her own husband. Then he talks about the marital duties. Later in vs. 7, he says that he wishes that all men were as hs was, however, each has his own gift from God. This means to me that he did not command that all men have a wife or that all women have a husband. Later he says that it is good for the unmarried widows to remain as he was but... if they they did not have self control, they were to marry. God bless.
... and The Bible seems to support that. So, pleasure seems to be secondary.
Could you possibly provide a bible passage to support this theory?
When the Bible supports something it is usually very clear about it you know.
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The Purpose of Sex
God bless.
