Technically the word “rapture” is not in the Bible.
Usually
(almost always) when people speak of the rapture, they’re speaking of an event which is supposed to happen before the great tribulation - before Jesus returns.
It is thought that they
(living Christians at the time) will be removed from the earth and not have to undergo persecution or even martyrdom.
…That they will be changed into immortal bodies and transported out of here and then return again when Jesus comes back again
(the 2nd time).
They "prove" it’s validity with this quote:
For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep.
For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first.
Then we who are alive and remain will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we shall always be with the Lord.
1Thes 4:15,17
Yes, there is such an occurrence of people being changed from mortal to immortal without having tasted death, but the reason is: the resurrection.
At the time of the resurrection, there will be Christians who are alive.
In order to participate in immortality, one must either already be dead, OR be changed from life into life everlasting.
One key phrase which always seems to be ignored is "
will not precede".
In the JKV it’s translated: "
will not prevent".
The meaning of that is obscure, but it is literal - as is “beforehand” and “precede”.
John Darby, a founder of the Plymouth Brotherhood in Scotland
(although he was Irish), is one of the initial proponents of the concept.
It is interesting that he translated the New Testament and this is how he translated the verse:
(For this we say to you in the word of the Lord, that we, the living, who remain to the coming of the Lord, are in no way to anticipate those who have fallen asleep; (4:15)
[end parenthesis in verse 18]
In other words, when the people who are raptured get to heaven
(or in the air), they should not be anticipating the arrival of those who have fallen asleep
(the resurrected).
This too is a literal translation because the Greek meaning includes “anticipate”.
There seems to be consensus that the resurrection occurs at the end of the tribulation described in the book of Revelation.
The clear sequence of events – even in Darby’s translation – must be ignored for there to be a pre-resurrection rapture.
So if
A,
(the resurrection) happens at the end, and
B (the rapture) comes after
A, then
B cannot occur at the beginning.
There are various attempts to justify the pre-trib rapture, but in the end this sequence is ignored.
The result is: a secret coming of Jesus when Christians disappear from the earth and the world is stunned and left scratching their heads.
Somehow, a bunch of “tribulation saints” convert to believers and are then martyred by the anti-Christ.
Some reason that these are Jews, because of the 144,000 representing the tribes of Israel.
(Rev 7)
While scripture does indicate that Jews will be converted at the end - when they see the One whom they have pierced.
(Zec 12:10)
Jews are descendant from the kingdom of Judah
(the House of Judah), which was composed of the tribes of Judah, Benjamin, and some of Levi.
(Jeremiah 3)(1Kings 11)
The other tribes made up the northern kingdom of Israel which were banished to Assyria and then dispersed among the nations.
(2 Kings 17)
These are known as the lost tribes of
(the house of) Israel.
Perhaps this verse will now have a clearer meaning:
"I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Mat 15:24)
I’m now way off topic, but the 144,000 cannot represent these Jews saved at the end, because all the tribes must be represented.
Anyway.. I’m sure you’ll hear from others explaining why I’m wrong about the timing of the rapture.
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God bless.
