U.S. CitiesCity-Data Forum Index
Covid-19 Information Page
Go Back   City-Data Forum > General Forums > Economics
 [Register]
Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
View detailed profile (Advanced) or search
site with Google Custom Search

Search Forums  (Advanced)
 
Old 05-05-2009, 02:28 PM
 
1 posts, read 3,144 times
Reputation: 10

Advertisements

15 years ago, I sold some land. The lawyer that drew up the agreement was the one that wanted the property. I did not know until recently that he changed what we agreed on. He was suppose to just get 17 acres but according to the deed, he took 46 acres.I did not know that the taxes had not been changed out of my name so I have still been paying taxes all of these years on the property I sold. He has since died. His family has the property. Is there any way that I can claim part of it since I have paid taxes on it for 15 years?

Last edited by 2goldens; 05-05-2009 at 07:37 PM.. Reason: Moved from Alabama forum
Rate this post positively Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message

 
Old 05-05-2009, 08:11 PM
 
Location: Rural Central Texas
3,631 posts, read 9,744,278 times
Reputation: 5500
That is a good question, and one I cannot specifically answer. In Texas, the answer is no. In Alabama the answer might be different, but I kinda doubt it.

The logic is as follows:

Under Texas laws, the parties to a contract are expected to be fully aware of the details of the agreement. The fact that you were not is your burden and not addressable by law.

Acquisition of property through payment of taxes is possible IF the taxes are in arrears and the property is offered at tax sale for back taxes. Payment of these taxes transfers the property into the ownership of the person paying the taxes, BUT the delinquent owner can redeem the property within a specified period of time by reimbursing the person that paid the tax and the property must then be reverted back to the owner prior to the tax sale.

Since you have been paying all along and the property is not in arrears and not up for tax sale, you have simply been gifting these monies unknowingly to your lawyer.

His family thanks you and wishes you the best, but you do not have any case for redeeming the property after this period of time.
Rate this post positively Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
 
Old 03-14-2010, 07:44 PM
 
69,360 posts, read 58,532,886 times
Reputation: 9372
I realise this posting is old.. but I just seen it and thought I would chime in.. to the OP: Research taking reposession of the title by "adverse possession".. Every state has different number of years one must pay taxes in order to make a possession claim, but they range from 5-15 years...
Rate this post positively Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Please register to post and access all features of our very popular forum. It is free and quick. Over $68,000 in prizes has already been given out to active posters on our forum. Additional giveaways are planned.

Detailed information about all U.S. cities, counties, and zip codes on our site: City-data.com.


Reply
Please update this thread with any new information or opinions. This open thread is still read by thousands of people, so we encourage all additional points of view.

Quick Reply
Message:

Over $104,000 in prizes was already given out to active posters on our forum and additional giveaways are planned!

Go Back   City-Data Forum > General Forums > Economics

All times are GMT -6.

© 2005-2021, Advameg, Inc. · Please obey Forum Rules · Terms of Use and Privacy Policy · Bug Bounty

City-Data.com - Contact Us - Archive 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37 - Top