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Brooklyn is considered part of NYC because it literally is part of NYC. New York City = Manhattan+Brooklyn+Queens+The Bronx+Staten Island.
New Jersey, Connecticut, Long Island, etc. Are not considered to actually be part of NYC itself but are part of the greater NYC region where many workers live and commute into the city everyday. Nobody considers them to actually be NYC though.
Why is the Bay area not considered one metro like say Houston ?
Because South Bay doesn't meet commuter threshold. Not enough people commute up to SF.
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And NYC is allowed to crawl into massive swathes of land in New Jersey and Connecticut without anyone blinking an eye lol .
Those massive swathes of land have commuter rail going into NYC and people commute into NYC for jobs from the suburbs. NYC has a massive local rail network (I haven't even seen a map of a unified NYC commuter rail, its usually split up between 3-4 different maps (LIRR, Metro North, NJT, PATH).
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Originally Posted by Derventio
In Europe we are more exact on city limits ect ..
This is my point.
No you are not. In Europe, city limits often don't reflect the size of the actual city either. No one refers to London as a small town of 9,000 people or even Paris a city of only 2.2 million. People often refer to greater urban areas or metro areas in the US context.
Why is the Bay area not considered one metro like say Houston ?
I think what you're looking for is Primary Statistical Area, which is basically Combined Statistical Areas and Metropolitan Statistical Areas where there is no applicable CSA.
Why are Brooklyn and New Jersey considered part of New York and Orange county and the inland empire considered part of LA when Oakland and San Jose are not considered part of San Francisco ?
As an outsider I don't get it.
As other stated Brooklyn is literally a part of NYC. New Jersey is right there and commuting patters put it directly in the MSA with NYC.
Inland Empire and LA are not in the same metro, exact same as how San Jose and San Fran aren't in the same metro.
LA and Inland Empire are part of the same CSA, just like San Jose and San Fran are part of the same CSA.
I wonder how close the San Jose metropolitan area and the SF-Oakland metropolitan area are to becoming one metro. I think with Caltrain electrification happening, the extension of BART from East Bay to San Jose and a potential extension of Caltrain to downtown, it should be relatively soon. Just the two stop extension of BART that crosses over from Alameda County to Santa Clara county might change the commuting percentages enough.
It's too bad they made BART broad gauge and so incompatible with Caltrain and other rail lines. If it weren't for that, then Caltrain and BART probably could have become part of the same system and a continuous loop around the bay could have been in the cards.
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