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Location: Everybody is going to hurt you, you just gotta find the ones worth suffering for-B Marley
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What does it mean when a disease is said to 'have a higher incidence of antibodies to herpes simplex virus, hepatitis C virus, and parvovirus B19' Does it mean the person with the disease they're referring to is prone to herpes or hep c? Or does it mean since they have 'a higher incidence of antibodies' to it, they're not likely to get it? I'm confused.
a person having antibodies just means that they have been exposed to said illness at some point, the way I understood from my doctor is that antibody levels indicate your immunity to whatever it was you were exposed to. That probably doesn't make sense but it did when I was thinking it LOL
Location: Everybody is going to hurt you, you just gotta find the ones worth suffering for-B Marley
9,516 posts, read 19,998,362 times
Reputation: 9418
Quote:
Originally Posted by andreaspercheron
a person having antibodies just means that they have been exposed to said illness at some point, the way I understood from my doctor is that antibody levels indicate your immunity to whatever it was you were exposed to. That probably doesn't make sense but it did when I was thinking it LOL
So they may be immune to herpes or hep c? Sorry, it isn't making sense to me.
So they may be immune to herpes or hep c? Sorry, it isn't making sense to me.
I know, I'm sorry - let me see here... I think it means if someone had the antibodies of either of those, they have been exposed and their immune system is less tolerable to them?? I had to do an antibody test for work to determine my immunity to measles, rubella, etc.. and I had all the antibodies present so it mean that I had already been exposed whether to the illness or had the vaccine against it but that I was immune to getting those illnesses. I guess now your situation is a little different. ugh.. sorry for the confusion.
What does it mean when a disease is said to 'have a higher incidence of antibodies to herpes simplex virus, hepatitis C virus, and parvovirus B19' Does it mean the person with the disease they're referring to is prone to herpes or hep c? Or does it mean since they have 'a higher incidence of antibodies' to it, they're not likely to get it? I'm confused.
I googled and found this:
Many of us have been taught that immunoglobulin M (IgM) correlates with acute infection, but that is not necessarily the case. Because of its high molecular weight, IgM is found most commonly in the intravascular compartment and is not transported to the fetus. IgM usually becomes apparent early during the course of infection. It has a half-life of 10 days and usually—but not always—regresses to undetectable levels over a few months.
The misconception that IgM is found only in acute infection and disappears within 3 months causes many clinicians to test for it and to misinterpret the results. In many cases, IgM fails to develop after acute infection. In others, it may persist for as long as 2 years after primary infection. It also can be detected with recurrent or reactivated infections.1
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) has a longer half-life (21 days) and is the most common immunoglobulin in humans. It is found in tissues and serum and readily crosses the placenta. It can be detected shortly after acute infection, exhibiting a steep rise and fall over several weeks after primary infection. IgG also is a sign of past infection.1 <H5 style="MARGIN-BOTTOM: -12pt">Telltale sign of acute infection
</H5>It now seems clear that an IgG antibody produced within the first months after primary infection binds to its antigen poorly. After this initial period, the IgG binds with greater intensity (ie, higher avidity) to that specific antigen (virus). Assays that measure this binding intensity are called avidity assays and are expressed as a percentage of IgG bound to the antigen after treatment with denaturing agents.
Location: Everybody is going to hurt you, you just gotta find the ones worth suffering for-B Marley
9,516 posts, read 19,998,362 times
Reputation: 9418
Quote:
Originally Posted by andreaspercheron
I know, I'm sorry - let me see here... I think it means if someone had the antibodies of either of those, they have been exposed and their immune system is less tolerable to them?? I had to do an antibody test for work to determine my immunity to measles, rubella, etc.. and I had all the antibodies present so it mean that I had already been exposed whether to the illness or had the vaccine against it but that I was immune to getting those illnesses. I guess now your situation is a little different. ugh.. sorry for the confusion.
Ok, that makes sense. But this sentence seems to contradict it: I think it means if someone had the antibodies of either of those, they have been exposed and their immune system is less tolerable to them
Or does being less tolerant mean it fights them more vigorously? LOL I know, I'm not a quick study.
Ok, that makes sense. But this sentence seems to contradict it: I think it means if someone had the antibodies of either of those, they have been exposed and their immune system is less tolerable to them
Or does being less tolerant mean it fights them more vigorously? LOL I know, I'm not a quick study.
Sorry, you are correct that was MY typo. LOL As i understand my immunity is now stronger meaning I should not medically be able to contract measles, rubella, etc... Medical stuff is so confusing and I work in medical!! LOL
Location: Everybody is going to hurt you, you just gotta find the ones worth suffering for-B Marley
9,516 posts, read 19,998,362 times
Reputation: 9418
Quote:
Originally Posted by andreaspercheron
I googled and found this:
Many of us have been taught that immunoglobulin M (IgM) correlates with acute infection, but that is not necessarily the case. Because of its high molecular weight, IgM is found most commonly in the intravascular compartment and is not transported to the fetus. IgM usually becomes apparent early during the course of infection. It has a half-life of 10 days and usually—but not always—regresses to undetectable levels over a few months.
The misconception that IgM is found only in acute infection and disappears within 3 months causes many clinicians to test for it and to misinterpret the results. In many cases, IgM fails to develop after acute infection. In others, it may persist for as long as 2 years after primary infection. It also can be detected with recurrent or reactivated infections.1
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) has a longer half-life (21 days) and is the most common immunoglobulin in humans. It is found in tissues and serum and readily crosses the placenta. It can be detected shortly after acute infection, exhibiting a steep rise and fall over several weeks after primary infection. IgG also is a sign of past infection.1 <H5 style="MARGIN-BOTTOM: -12pt">Telltale sign of acute infection
</H5>It now seems clear that an IgG antibody produced within the first months after primary infection binds to its antigen poorly. After this initial period, the IgG binds with greater intensity (ie, higher avidity) to that specific antigen (virus). Assays that measure this binding intensity are called avidity assays and are expressed as a percentage of IgG bound to the antigen after treatment with denaturing agents.
My eyes, my eyes! That might as well have been written in Japanese.
Location: Everybody is going to hurt you, you just gotta find the ones worth suffering for-B Marley
9,516 posts, read 19,998,362 times
Reputation: 9418
Quote:
Originally Posted by andreaspercheron
Sorry, you are correct that was MY typo. LOL As i understand my immunity is now stronger meaning I should not medically be able to contract measles, rubella, etc... Medical stuff is so confusing and I work in medical!! LOL
I know, same here, but this one makes my mind go in circles. LOL Thanks for your help.
I know, same here, but this one makes my mind go in circles. LOL Thanks for your help.
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