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Old 03-29-2019, 11:26 AM
 
Location: Houston, TX 77082
243 posts, read 268,212 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GreyKarast View Post
Few people in the West today knows what Tartary.
Tartary is the Aryan-Slavonic country which occupied almost the whole of Eurasia. Modern Russia is only a small part of the ancient Tartar
OP your an idiot.

First of all their not such a thing called “Tartar” that’s an insult term Russians use against the TATARS.

Secondly, Tatar’s are a Turkic people, not aryan or Slavonic.

Thirdly, true aryans have been extinct for thousands of years.

 
Old 03-29-2019, 06:03 PM
 
Location: Seattle WA, USA
5,699 posts, read 4,925,642 times
Reputation: 4942
Quote:
Originally Posted by Zimogor View Post
I absolutely agree with this. I was talk only about "Tatar-Mongol yoke".
ok, well for a moment I thought you lost all your marbles. Well could you elaborate a bit on what Tatar-Mongol yoke means too you? As I understand it, it just means that Tatars were well integrated into mongol society similar to how greeks were in Rome, which is why the term Greco-Roman is used frequently. And similarly to Rome who eventually transitioned into Greek Byzantium, The Mongol Golden Horde transitioned into the Tatar Khanates.

Here is a good video that explains what made the Mongols so uniquely good at conquering huge swaths of land in such little time.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dbbJHCrln6U&t=1108s

Also I know you don't fully trust wiki, which is fair, however for the most part I find it pretty accurate. But you can read about it here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mongol..._of_Tatar_rule

Also I went back and read your original comment and it seems I kind misunderstood you. I thought you were in agreement with the original poster, GreyKarast, said "Tartary is the Aryan-Slavonic country which occupied almost the whole of Eurasia" But now it seems you are talking about an entirely different thing.

"Some modern revisionist Russian historians (most notably the Soviet era historian and "Neo-Eurasianist" ideologist Lev Gumilev) even postulate that there was no invasion at all. According to them, the Rus' princes concluded a defensive alliance with the Horde in order to repel attacks of the fanatical Teutonic Knights, which posed a much greater threat to the Rus' religion and culture."

Now if this is what you are refereeing to then this does seem to have some possibility of occurring. But I think the Mongols still originally invaded but then the Rus accepted Mongol rule because it was beneficial.
 
Old 03-29-2019, 09:24 PM
 
Location: Russia
1,348 posts, read 624,729 times
Reputation: 688
Quote:
Originally Posted by grega94 View Post
Also I know you don't fully trust wiki, which is fair, however for the most part I find it pretty accurate.
I don't like wiki because in different language versions articles might very different in content. Because people, as me or you, is writes this articles and they have own point of view what they writes about.

Quote:
Originally Posted by grega94 View Post
Also I went back and read your original comment and it seems I kind misunderstood you. I thought you were in agreement with the original poster, GreyKarast, said "Tartary is the Aryan-Slavonic country which occupied almost the whole of Eurasia" But now it seems you are talking about an entirely different thing.
I assume it and I think it might be true. Why not?

Quote:
Originally Posted by grega94 View Post
Now if this is what you are refereeing to then this does seem to have some possibility of occurring. But I think the Mongols still originally invaded but then the Rus accepted Mongol rule because it was beneficial.
The fact of the matter is that they did not accept nobody rule.These were their own rule. This were two slavic branches of power. One of they was military (Horde) and they called themselves MOGOLS (without N in middle) and they have military leader who was called Khan. In 19 century in west historical literature MOGOLS turned into MONGOLS. And was civil branch lost war and paid tribute. And the principalities were ruled by the same people as before.

Unfortunately, we can only to argue now defending their points of view. Because we can't find out the real truth.
 
Old 03-30-2019, 01:05 AM
 
Location: Seattle WA, USA
5,699 posts, read 4,925,642 times
Reputation: 4942
Quote:
Originally Posted by Zimogor View Post
I don't like wiki because in different language versions articles might very different in content. Because people, as me or you, is writes this articles and they have own point of view what they writes about.



I assume it and I think it might be true. Why not?



The fact of the matter is that they did not accept nobody rule.These were their own rule. This were two slavic branches of power. One of they was military (Horde) and they called themselves MOGOLS (without N in middle) and they have military leader who was called Khan. In 19 century in west historical literature MOGOLS turned into MONGOLS. And was civil branch lost war and paid tribute. And the principalities were ruled by the same people as before.

Unfortunately, we can only to argue now defending their points of view. Because we can't find out the real truth.
What evidence can you point to that makes it more plausible for the Mongol empire to be Aryan/Slavic rather than Mongol/Tatar?

Also why does Russian language have so many words of Turkic origin that deal with state,financial and dietary matters whereas other Slavic countries don't? If Russians were the rulers why would they absorb these words?
https://www.languagesoftheworld.info...n-russian.html

kazak ‘kazak’
karaul ‘guard’
kazna ‘treasury’
den’ga ‘money’
kirpich ‘brick’
arbuz ‘watermelon’
loshad’ ‘horse’
izjum ‘raisin’
saraj ‘shed’
bashka ‘head’
almaz ‘diamond’
bashmak ‘shoe’
baklazhan ‘eggplant’
sunduk ‘box, chest’
chugun ‘cast iron’
alycha ‘kind of plum’
arancha ‘locust’
balyk ‘salted and dried sturgeon or salmon’
jarlyk ‘label’
bashmak ‘shoe’


Why is it when Russians started to expand south and east they didn't come across any Slavic kingdoms?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Territ...tion_of_Russia
1552: Khanate of Kazan
1556: Khanate of Astrakhan
1598: Khanate of Sibir
1681: Qasim Khanate
1771: Kalmyk Khanate
1783: Crimean Khanate
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Khanate
 
Old 03-30-2019, 02:18 AM
 
Location: Russia
1,348 posts, read 624,729 times
Reputation: 688
Quote:
Originally Posted by grega94 View Post
What evidence can you point to that makes it more plausible for the Mongol empire to be Aryan/Slavic rather than Mongol/Tatar?

Also why does Russian language have so many words of Turkic origin that deal with state,financial and dietary matters whereas other Slavic countries don't? If Russians were the rulers why would they absorb these words?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Khanate
That doesn't prove anything. The Russian language is full of words from French and English and what? Maybe it just proves that the Tatars and Russian were subjects of one empire - the Great Tartary. But these were not modern Tatars in the ethnic sense. And maybe they had own dialect - Turkic.Hence the mixture of words,they must understand each other somehow. Maybe they were military class who was called Tatars, example as the Cossacks. Cossacks can be from river Don (Donskie kazaki), from Kuban (Kubanskie kazaki), from behind of Baikal (Zaboykalskie kazaki) but they all might be russian.

Well, what can you say? is it possible?

And why all decided that those Tatars were a Mongoloid type? We have somewhere their lifetime images?
Because so wanted historians?

P.s. Even now, a Russian can call another Russian as Tatar if he does not understand something.
And this is not an offensive nickname, and sometimes foreigners who do not understand Russian are sometimes called in Russia.

"Do not you understand? Well, you Tatar!"

Last edited by Zimogor; 03-30-2019 at 02:34 AM..
 
Old 03-31-2019, 10:37 AM
 
Location: State Fire and Ice
3,102 posts, read 5,616,985 times
Reputation: 862
Tatars both lived in the central part of Russia and today. The fact that there was no Mongol-Tatar yoke was one hundred percent.In the west, Russia was called Tartary because people in Russia were Orthodox. In honor of God Tarkh, patron of the Russian land and his sister Tara. The other name of this Slavic god is Dagd God
 
Old 03-31-2019, 10:44 AM
 
Location: State Fire and Ice
3,102 posts, read 5,616,985 times
Reputation: 862
You should also understand that the Continent Eurasia is also named after Russia. When you call Asians. For example, it’s not true. Asians are Russian and all Orthodox peoples living in Russia. Why? Because part of the Continent Asia is Russia. Great Asia. Ac is the god of life on earth. Ie this is a white man. and this is directly related to the rule of law.
Orthodoxy.
Just do not confuse Orthodoxy with Christianity. Orthodoxy can not be Christian.

You should know that Russian is the most ancient Indo-European language and it is an archival form of Sanskrit.
 
Old 03-31-2019, 10:55 AM
 
Location: State Fire and Ice
3,102 posts, read 5,616,985 times
Reputation: 862
Quote:
Originally Posted by Zimogor View Post
That doesn't prove anything. The Russian language is full of words from French and English and what? Maybe it just proves that the Tatars and Russian were subjects of one empire - the Great Tartary. But these were not modern Tatars in the ethnic sense. And maybe they had own dialect - Turkic.Hence the mixture of words,they must understand each other somehow. Maybe they were military class who was called Tatars, example as the Cossacks. Cossacks can be from river Don (Donskie kazaki), from Kuban (Kubanskie kazaki), from behind of Baikal (Zaboykalskie kazaki) but they all might be russian.

Well, what can you say? is it possible?

And why all decided that those Tatars were a Mongoloid type? We have somewhere their lifetime images?
Because so wanted historians?

P.s. Even now, a Russian can call another Russian as Tatar if he does not understand something.
And this is not an offensive nickname, and sometimes foreigners who do not understand Russian are sometimes called in Russia.

"Do not you understand? Well, you Tatar!"
The Bolsheviks needed justification for the so-called revolution; therefore, they created Monnoly in 1921 on the territory of Russia. The Mongols never called themselves Mongols. And Mongolian, more precisely, mogul is translated from Latin as Great. And the whole story that we know as rules was written in the 19th century. and it was written by foreigners, people who could not even speak a word of Russian. Sennol it can be called a hybrid war. China, on the other hand, falsifies its history and archaeological finds, I can cite a lot of examples and facts. In the Soviet Union today, Western funds, such as Soras, also do this.
 
Old 03-31-2019, 10:57 AM
 
Location: State Fire and Ice
3,102 posts, read 5,616,985 times
Reputation: 862
Quote:
Originally Posted by AliefNorth View Post
OP your an idiot.

First of all their not such a thing called “Tartar” that’s an insult term Russians use against the TATARS.

Secondly, Tatar’s are a Turkic people, not aryan or Slavonic.

Thirdly, true aryans have been extinct for thousands of years.
I'm an idiot? You know, I graduated from 2 universities and one college, as well as various training centers. I have 4 international diplomas and 8 certificates. so I think that the idiot of the two of us is clearly you.
This is not an insult. and the people are called Tatars and not Tartars. Do not write more of your nonsense.
Will you still teach me? are you kidding? Have you ever seen Tatars in your life? Have you ever been to Russia? then do not write this nonsense more idiot
Tartars are the peoples of Russia, usually Orthodox. and Tarkh is the Russian god, God give. from here Tartar. not Tatars.

And never in Russia was the word Tatars an insult

Last edited by GreyKarast; 03-31-2019 at 11:38 AM..
 
Old 03-31-2019, 11:15 AM
 
Location: State Fire and Ice
3,102 posts, read 5,616,985 times
Reputation: 862
Quote:
Originally Posted by grega94 View Post
What evidence can you point to that makes it more plausible for the Mongol empire to be Aryan/Slavic rather than Mongol/Tatar?

Also why does Russian language have so many words of Turkic origin that deal with state,financial and dietary matters whereas other Slavic countries don't? If Russians were the rulers why would they absorb these words?
https://www.languagesoftheworld.info...n-russian.html

kazak ‘kazak’
karaul ‘guard’
kazna ‘treasury’
den’ga ‘money’
kirpich ‘brick’
arbuz ‘watermelon’
loshad’ ‘horse’
izjum ‘raisin’
saraj ‘shed’
bashka ‘head’
almaz ‘diamond’
bashmak ‘shoe’
baklazhan ‘eggplant’
sunduk ‘box, chest’
chugun ‘cast iron’
alycha ‘kind of plum’
arancha ‘locust’
balyk ‘salted and dried sturgeon or salmon’
jarlyk ‘label’
bashmak ‘shoe’


Why is it when Russians started to expand south and east they didn't come across any Slavic kingdoms?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Territ...tion_of_Russia
1552: Khanate of Kazan
1556: Khanate of Astrakhan
1598: Khanate of Sibir
1681: Qasim Khanate
1771: Kalmyk Khanate
1783: Crimean Khanate
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Khanate
Russian is an archaic Sanskrit, so these words are in other languages. And many of the name is not really Turkic.You know Chio in Russia there were several Greeks. Some glitches were European, others Slavs. And the Arabs called people speaking several languages ​​and having other knowledge and not related to the ethnic group Generally. In wartime, the squad leader was called the Khans, in civilian peaceful Princes.
Siberia is a military camp, Kazakhstan it was a Cossack camp, that is, a Cossack headquarters. And the capital of Germany, Berlin, still has a Slavic name translated as Den. and it is no secret that most of Europe was previously all Slavic
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