Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
1) Was wheat farming assisted by the government in the US less than in Canada or Australia, like through settlement and through scientific and extension projects, just like it was assisted by the government in Argentina less than in Canada or Australia?
2) Did exclusively agricultural development (e.g. Argentina) foster significantly less innovation and more collusion than mineral development in whole (e.g. South Africa since the discovery of gold and diamonds) or in part (e.g. US, Canada, Australia)? To put it in somewhat technical terms, is it impossible for exclusively agricultural development to avoid collusive quasi-rents and promote innovation?
3) Were farms in the Australian wheat belt owner-occupied like in the Canadian Prairies or renter-occupied and owned by large-scale landlord-farmers like in the Pampas?
Collusive quasi-rents? Do you mean oligopoly profits?
I don't know much about agricultural development in Argentina, Canada and Australia, but the US Federal government did not get involved until the Morrill and Homestead Acts. The transcontinental railways promoted agricultural settlement/development and were subsidized by the US government. US "farm programs" support payments were a 20th-century phenomenon. Rural electrification also played heavily in indirect supports to the US ag. sector.
Please register to post and access all features of our very popular forum. It is free and quick. Over $68,000 in prizes has already been given out to active posters on our forum. Additional giveaways are planned.
Detailed information about all U.S. cities, counties, and zip codes on our site: City-data.com.