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Perhaps somewhere somebody used chemical weapons to but to my knowledge no one did. How was that possible? How is it that even the Nazis in their darkest hour didn't resort to chemical weapons during the war, and what was the rational for the U.S. not to using chemical weapons but still being able to justify using the atomic bomb. What was the disconnect because I just find it incredible that considering all the other crimes committed during the war how chemical weapons didn't come into play.
(of course some will quickly disprove my understand and kill the thread :roll eyes: )
I seem to recall reading somewhere that due to Hitler being gassed during WW1, he had forbade the use of poison gas on the battlefield. I have no idea if that is true or not, but if it is I find it ironic that he had no qualms about using it on helpless civilians in the death camps.
As for the Allied side, perhaps there were treaties signed after WW1 that prohibited gas/chemical weapons being used. But again, I'm guessing. I would be interested to know the answer too.
Treaties. Plus, neither side wanted to pull that trigger after experiences using gas in WW I.
The Japanese did use gas against the Chinese, both military and civilians, as well as conducting experiments and research with gas in China using POWs.
It can be argued that that the Germans did conduct gas warfare against concentration camp inmates.
Treaties. Plus, neither side wanted to pull that trigger after experiences using gas in WW I.
Treaties?!? What did Hitler care about treaties? What did the Japanese care about treaties?
Someone needs to come up with better reasons than these.
Horses! That's the reason. In WW2 Germany was still very reliant on horsepower for just about everything. They simply could never create a practical working gas mask for horses.
That's what Goering said anyways. But I suspect it was simply a combination of 1.) we had gas, they had gas, using it by one side would results in the other side using it. And the allies had plenty of artillery and air power to deliver it such that the advantage would be on the allies side. 2.) Gas warfare is not perfect - conditions had to by right or it would simply blow back into the side that was trying to use it.
Japan used it freely in WW2 - against non-western forces like China. They had no qualms certainly because those Asian forces they used it on could not respond back with Chemicals. The US on the other hand....same reason, using gas would put them at a disadvantage when the US responded.
Trust me in both cases it wasn't due to some consideration and reservation of the human cost of using weapons of mass destruction by the axis powers.
Horses! That's the reason. In WW2 Germany was still very reliant on horsepower for just about everything. They simply could never create a practical working gas mask for horses.
There must have been a perceived German threat for the Allies to stockpile mustard gas at Bari in 1943. Well they tried as the shipment was bombed and spread among the harbor/wharf/etc.
Regarding the PTO, I suspect island campaigns were drive by speed hence the typical use of Marines rather than Army. I know, I know there are exceptions and recall a U.S. Army general was relieved because his troops progress was too slow. The use of chemical weapons on the small islands may have lead to an undesired wait for its effects to be confirmed and then there is the soil and perhaps water contamination issue. Of course, there is also Japanese retribution on Allied POWs.
Hey, learn to format, the horses quote wasn't mine!
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