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Excluding Texas + California, were there American settlers in Mexico in the early 19th century?
If so, where exactly did they settle, what were their numbers, and what were their occupations?
Basically, the context of this question is that I know that some Americans settled in both Texas and California back when they were still a part of Mexico--thus making possible both the 1836 Texan War of Independence and the 1846 Bear Flag Revolt--and was thus wondering if any other parts of Mexico likewise had American settlers in the early 19th century.
Remember there was no "Mexico" until 1821. It was a Spanish Colonial Empire - "New Spain".
Essentially, everyone was a settler except the native americans.
Quote:
Originally Posted by karstic
And Americans complain about Mexican "illegals"...Mercy.
The majority of Mexicans who lived in New Mexico were concentrated in the Sante Fe/Taos area and were the victims of neglect by the Mexican government. From 1821 through 1837, the government of Mexico changed hands 17 times, mostly in coups. This serial instability left them in no position to pay much attention to their colonists in the north, and the people living up there were constantly subject to raids by Indians who at this point, were the real rulers of most of the lands.
Before the Mexican War, there was an American presence in the Taos area, represented by the Bent Brothers and the construction of Bent's Fort which was the central trading center. After General Kearney's seizure of New Mexico, Charles Bent was named territorial governor and was assassinated brutally by a combination of Mexicans and Indian allies in the 1847 Taos Revolt. The revolt was crushed by US troops.
Remember there was no "Mexico" until 1821. It was a Spanish Colonial Empire - "New Spain".
Essentially, everyone was a settler except the native americans.
take it to P&C
That's the most ignorant statement I've ever heard in a long time. Mexico is a country of three cultures formed during 300 years. A country based on three cultures, not a haven for the dispossed.
Sorry, those states are Mexico, United States but Mexico, you can´t change that as the Mexican identity is stronger and older and part of the US.
The majority of Mexicans who lived in New Mexico were concentrated in the Sante Fe/Taos area and were the victims of neglect by the Mexican government. From 1821 through 1837, the government of Mexico changed hands 17 times, mostly in coups. This serial instability left them in no position to pay much attention to their colonists in the north, and the people living up there were constantly subject to raids by Indians who at this point, were the real rulers of most of the lands.
Before the Mexican War, there was an American presence in the Taos area, represented by the Bent Brothers and the construction of Bent's Fort which was the central trading center. After General Kearney's seizure of New Mexico, Charles Bent was named territorial governor and was assassinated brutally by a combination of Mexicans and Indian allies in the 1847 Taos Revolt. The revolt was crushed by US troops.
Taos was resettled by the Spanish crown with Spanish colonists (1770?) (they are still there) and was part of Nueva España. Later, it became part of Mexico. Spanish and later Mexicans commited the great error of allowing Americans into their territory. They should have admitted only Catholics. Irish and German Catholics did not pose a problem as they were treated like scum in the US.
At that time, it was very difficult to find Catholic settlers in Europe, some from Spain, Italy and Germany that was suffering starvation.
That's the most ignorant statement I've ever heard in a long time. Mexico is a country of three cultures formed during 300 years. A country based on three cultures, not a haven for the dispossed.
Sorry, those states are Mexico, United States but Mexico, you can´t change that as the Mexican identity is stronger and older and part of the US.
Let me get this right-it's an ignorant statement to say that Mexico was not an independent nation until 1821? Please explain further.
It was colonized by Spanish speaking Europeans primarily (who in turn subjected the native Americans), no one argues with that...but what's that have to do with my comment
Interested as well since "Mexico" was the Viceroyalty of New Spain.
Don't tell Kaustic or whatever his name is that. Calling it a territory of Spain is apparently an "ignorant statement".
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