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He was convicted of treason for the 1923 beer hall putsch. Served 1 year or so if I remember correctly. Other than that I don't think he was ever charged with any crimes in Germany.
He would have been tried and convicted at Nuremberg, certainly, but those trials were obviously not based on established German law but rather the Allies' understanding of international law as it was convenient in 1945.
Hitler almost certainly broke other German laws both in the pursuit of power and in power, but since he was in total control of the German legislative and administrative process for a decade plus, he had ample opportunity to create laws which would have covered a pretty significant part of his and his underlings' activities.
The beer hall I admit he broke the law and pleaded guilty to doing so with no shame, but I don’t think he broke German laws after his rise to power. The night of long knives came close but the purge was legally under domestic terror imminent self-defense of the Reich under the executive judgment of the chancellor.
Crimes against humanity was coded after the war but at the time it wasn’t international law. It was so unconscionable what was done that it became an international unanimous decision to apply crimes against humanity and backdate it, but that was a moral court proceeding, not a legal one .
Legal is all emotions out the window. Was a “law” codified in written national stature broken by Hitler AFTER he rose to power, excluding Beer Hall Putsch. Possibly the violence on Kristallnacht as this preceded war time and involved destruction of personal property that was not yet in law severed from the persons who were Jewish who owned those shops. But if this was an act of raiding domestic terror against a foreign diplomat in France I guess it’s protection of the state against an aggressive threat, but this may have been a broken law if there’s no trail of intent for how the Kristallnacht was tired to national security
Last edited by Freesponge; 08-24-2022 at 12:19 PM..
The Hitler-Stalin non-aggression pact entitied both to a private occupation of Poland not a precursor to a war with Europe
Poland didn’t fight the non-aggression pact which means they accepted the arrangement
France declaring war on Germany was unexpected and hence baseless
That justified an acceptance of a declaration of war on Hitler’s end. In war, casualties happen and peace time laws are replaced by martial law
What at that time was a crime against humanity? Where was that law written in 1939 to enforce ?
Bad yes very
Illegal no
Hitler invasion of USSr justified legally by USSR crossing demarcation lines in territory obtained before 1941
I think torching the Reichstag, blaming it on some Communist sap, and then using it as a pretext to jail and kill scores of your opponents might qualify.
The beer hall I admit he broke the law and pleaded guilty to doing so with no shame, but I don’t think he broke German laws after his rise to power. The night of long knives came close but the purge was legally under domestic terror imminent self-defense of the Reich under the executive judgment of the chancellor.
Crimes against humanity was coded after the war but at the time it wasn’t international law. It was so unconscionable what was done that it became an international unanimous decision to apply crimes against humanity and backdate it, but that was a moral court proceeding, not a legal one .
Legal is all emotions out the window. Was a “law” codified in written national stature broken by Hitler AFTER he rose to power, excluding Beer Hall Putsch. Possibly the violence on Kristallnacht as this preceded war time and involved destruction of personal property that was not yet in law severed from the persons who were Jewish who owned those shops. But if this was an act of raiding domestic terror against a foreign diplomat in France I guess it’s protection of the state against an aggressive threat, but this may have been a broken law if there’s no trail of intent for how the Kristallnacht was tired to national security
I am fairly sure the program to kill the disabled ("Aktion T4") was illegal under German law even. It occurred on German territory, and I'm not aware of any law that sanctioned the killing of the disabled even during the Third Reich. There's decent evidence that the directive for this program came from Hitler himself, so he couldn't have hidden behind the lack of a 'paper trail' to claim he didn't know about it.
The beer hall I admit he broke the law and pleaded guilty to doing so with no shame, but I don’t think he broke German laws after his rise to power. The night of long knives came close but the purge was legally under domestic terror imminent self-defense of the Reich under the executive judgment of the chancellor.
Crimes against humanity was coded after the war but at the time it wasn’t international law. It was so unconscionable what was done that it became an international unanimous decision to apply crimes against humanity and backdate it, but that was a moral court proceeding, not a legal one .
Legal is all emotions out the window. Was a “law” codified in written national stature broken by Hitler AFTER he rose to power, excluding Beer Hall Putsch. Possibly the violence on Kristallnacht as this preceded war time and involved destruction of personal property that was not yet in law severed from the persons who were Jewish who owned those shops. But if this was an act of raiding domestic terror against a foreign diplomat in France I guess it’s protection of the state against an aggressive threat, but this may have been a broken law if there’s no trail of intent for how the Kristallnacht was tired to national security
War crimes already existed in international law as criminal violations of the laws and customs of war which go back centuries.
Whilst "crimes against humanity" covered acts were already prohibited by the laws of most countries.
Besides killing millions of his own country's people?
Nah, I don't think he did anything illegal.
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