How Did Germanic France Become Latin/French Speaking

[Miserere]

Originally Posted by ABQConvict

The Frankish language did not disappear entirely. Flemish and Dutch are its descendants.

I think the nail in the coffin for Frankish in what is now France was the adoption of the vernacular by the Frankish aristocracy of the western realm of the Carolingian empire. Much like the Norman aristocracy in England eventually became English speakers, the western Franks became vulgar Latin speakers.

In the eastern realms, the local vernacular consisted of Germanic dialects so naturally, the aristocracy retained their language.

No, they were such a minority that they couldn't do anything else. Plus, they wanted to become Gallic-Roman. They did not adopt vernacular, they were always bilingual. As to the Langdoeil influenced by Frankish language, nonsense. French, either Langdoeil and Lemosin, are very close to Latin.

[Miserere]

Originally Posted by lexdiamondz1902

the lengas d'òc differ significantly from French and are more similar to Spanish, Catalan and Italian than they are to French in many respects, much of which has to do with Germanic and Celtic influences in French that are absent in other Latin languages.

Occitan

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2vR9xGiTlsY


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=t7bwKe5Ds18

Occitan sounds nothing like French and has a vocabulary that differs in many respects from French. Furthermore, most people didn't speak French in the era of Napoleon, neither in the north nor in the south.

Languedoc languages are French languages, and very similar except pronunciation. Not very similar to Spanish. Catalan is a languedocienne language.

[Miserere]

Originally Posted by hobbesdj

I guess I should throw away my degree.

I guess so.