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Not applicable to what? Not applicable to a working definition of what is culturally recognized as "rightful ownership" of land?
Do you have anything to add which will lend support to your erudite, sweeping statement?
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I'm referring to the fact that HOMESTEAD does not apply to the forceful occupation of other countries.
Not applicable to squatters in California that occupied land owned by American citizens of Spanish ancestry, under the assumption that property deeds initially issued in Spanish were not legal.
Former British colonies that are "third world countries" (i.e. not rich)-India, Burma, Paakistan, Sri Lanka, half of the Caribean, half of Africa, Ireland (until 20 years ago), the Channel Islands, Kiribati, Guyana, Yemen, Jordan, Palestine (not yet a country), Bhutan, Solomon Islands, Corsica, Malta.
Former Spanish colonies that are doing well- Chile, Peru, Puerto Rico, Florida, Texas, Uruguay, Argentina, Southern Italy (former Spanish/Aragonese territory), Brazil (Portugal was part of Spain for a while).
I'm not sure the original poster is familiar with portions of history outside of "approved textbooks".
Why did Spain's conquest of North and South America result in a bunch of 3rd world countries? Why did anything the British touch turn to gold? Think New Zealand, Australia, Canada, THE UNITED STATES... etc. etc.
You'll never see scenes like this in any former British colonies, or majority English speaking countries.
Location: Visitation between Wal-Mart & Home Depot
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Quote:
Originally Posted by island atoll
Why did Spain's conquest of North and South America result in a bunch of 3rd world countries? Why did anything the British touch turn to gold? Think New Zealand, Australia, Canada, THE UNITED STATES... etc. etc.
You'll never see scenes like this in any former British colonies, or majority English speaking countries.
I can name three former Spanish colonies that are not poverty stricken off the top of my head: Florida, California and Texas.
Why exclude Africa? Convenience? Was there something qualitatively different about the colonization there?
Spain definitely qualifies as a First World (barely) Hispanic nation.
Yes, the Eigth Economic Power in the World. The largest foreign investor in Latin America and the largest foreign investor in the US in some chapters, such as renewable energies. Yes, "barely".
Spain is not Hispanic. "Hispanic" is a invention of the American Census Bureau.
The former Roman province of Hispania and the former Visigothic Kingdom of Hispania do not exist anymore.
English historian, John Elliot, wrote recently that if England would have discovered Mexico in 1492, they would have acted just the same way that the Spanish.
According to John Elliot, there was no other way to conquer Mexico.
He stated that if England would have received the same amount of gold that Spain received, they would have acted in a similar imperial manner.
Why did Spain's conquest of North and South America result in a bunch of 3rd world countries? Why did anything the British touch turn to gold? Think New Zealand, Australia, Canada, THE UNITED STATES... etc. etc.
You'll never see scenes like this in any former British colonies, or majority English speaking countries.
With the US overthrowing Latin American democracies for the past 60 years, what the hell do you expect?!
And temporal synchronization.....
Spanish America was thriving, with universities and civilized urban life when the pilgrims were stealing turkeys from Indians.
To compare Latin America to the United States, you must compare modern day Latin America to United States 200 years from now.
LOL, many people here in Nuevo Mexico where i live would disagree with this answer .
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