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Old 06-29-2013, 06:44 PM
Location: Saugus, CA
98 posts, read 86,546 times
Reputation: 14


Why yes I am, but I never even needed any
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Old 06-29-2013, 08:33 PM
Location: Los Angeles area
14,017 posts, read 18,739,479 times
Reputation: 32426
Can someone explain to me how the question posed in the thread title even makes any sense? It is totally obvious that World War II caused more destruction to Europe than World War I. There are statistics to go by - military deaths, civilian deaths - often broken down by country. Just some elementary considerations point us in the right direction to answer the question:

1. Geographical extent of the fighting. Large-scale ground fighting in WW II extended eastward to the outskirts of Moscow and to the outskirts of Leningrad. It extended southward into North Africa. (O.K., the latter sentence may be off-topic, as North Africa is not part of Europe.) It extended southward to include almost all of Italy, including the island of Sicily. It extended westward to the English Channel. Compare to the more limited geographical extent of World War I.

2. Advances in aviation. In World War I, pilots dropped small bombs by hand from their small airplanes. The scale of deaths on the ground caused by aircraft was negligible. Compare that to World War II, in which the heavy four-engine bombers (U.S. B-17 and B-24 and British Lancaster) were deployed in staggering numbers to carry much larger bomb loads which were unleashed on both industrial plants and cities, causing horrendous civilian casualties, particularly but not limited to Hamburg, Dresden, and Berlin. where vast areas of the cities were reduced to rubble. Even England suffered many civilian deaths from air attacks in places like London and Coventry; towards the end of the war the V-1 and v-2 bombs also caused deaths in England. Smaller tactical bombers caused many civilian deaths in France while trying to put the railroad yards and bridges out of commission. In the Soviet Union, entire villages were completely wiped off the map by the fighting.

My summary is admittedly incomplete and sketchy. However, I am greatly puzzled how it is even possible to ask such a question as the question in the thread title.
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Old 06-30-2013, 12:12 PM
Location: Copenhagen, Denmark
10,747 posts, read 9,674,038 times
Reputation: 12692
The 30 years war is believed to have reduced the population of what was then Germany (1618-1648) by 1/3!
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