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Old 11-26-2014, 03:06 PM
 
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My friend had a test that came back negative but they advised she had sugar and protein in her urine? She never had that in her regular physicals? Do drug tests usually screen for that?
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Old 11-26-2014, 07:38 PM
 
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That is strange. She needs to follow up with a physician. Something is wrong with her kidneys.
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Old 11-26-2014, 07:38 PM
 
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Yes, they can detect that.
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Old 11-26-2014, 07:46 PM
 
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But why search for it in a drug test?
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Old 11-26-2014, 08:07 PM
 
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Hmm, that sounds like the pee test pregnant women take when they visit for their checkups (ketones). I remember testing protein and sugar. Maybe it just comes with it.
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Old 11-26-2014, 08:23 PM
 
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I'm not a lab technician, but it would seem reasonable that they would simply use standardized urine testing procedures and equipment rather than getting probably more costly specialized equipment if the standard stuff included the tests they need. The sugar/protein results are probably part of the standard tests/procedures they use. The standard tests probably return a lot of irrelevant results that are simply ignored. If something abnormal comes up, though, it would be unethical not to alert the person being tested so they can follow up with their doctor. I don't see anything sinister in this.
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Old 11-26-2014, 09:00 PM
 
Location: Suburb of Chicago
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chaofan View Post
I'm not a lab technician, but it would seem reasonable that they would simply use standardized urine testing procedures and equipment rather than getting probably more costly specialized equipment if the standard stuff included the tests they need. The sugar/protein results are probably part of the standard tests/procedures they use. The standard tests probably return a lot of irrelevant results that are simply ignored. If something abnormal comes up, though, it would be unethical not to alert the person being tested so they can follow up with their doctor. I don't see anything sinister in this.

I would think that test results for anything other than drugs would violate HIPAA. Potential employees go in thinking they're being tested for drugs, and give permission for those results to be shared with an employer. They do not give permission for other testing to be done, or results to be shared.
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Old 11-26-2014, 09:11 PM
 
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There was no indication that the results were shared with anyone but the applicant. It likely would be a HIPAA violation if anything but the authorized results were shared with the employer, but we do not know that they were.

Again, I know little about lab tests, but it is entirely possible that in the process of doing the tests for drugs, even if that is all that is being tested for, other results are unavoidable. If that is the case and those other, unavoidable, results are abnormal, I would think the ethical course of action would be to inform the individual concerned.

Maybe a medical or laboratory professional will see this thread and weigh in with some actual knowledge. I'm just speculating. I tend not to default to the assumption of a sinister or evil scheme behind something unfamiliar unless there is factual evidence to prove sinister or evil intent. I have no idea how some people are able to come up with and then maintain a belief in various conspiracy theories. They sound exhausting.
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Old 11-26-2014, 09:58 PM
 
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I've heard of a case where a man was doing drugs and somehow snuck in a sample from his wife to use. They knew it was a fake because...well she was pregnant and obviously it couldn't be his!

Having said that there can be such things as false positives and they might need to test for other things in combination.
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Old 11-26-2014, 11:02 PM
 
17,388 posts, read 14,925,309 times
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Originally Posted by Chaofan View Post
There was no indication that the results were shared with anyone but the applicant. It likely would be a HIPAA violation if anything but the authorized results were shared with the employer, but we do not know that they were.
I'm with you on every count.. But, to add a wrinkle in.. When you consent to the drug test.. I think you're just consenting that they test for the presence of drugs.. And i'm pretty sure the testing is the simple 'dip' test where they stick the reactive paper in to test for (I think) the 7 most common drugs.

While from a health standpoint, I don't see anything wrong with it.. From the rights standpoint.. My response would be.. Well.. if they're doing that.. What's to stop them from extracting DNA from your urine sample and submitting it to CODIS to see if there's a hit? Other than they wouldn't do that unless they were getting compensated for it.
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