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Old 09-20-2012, 08:30 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by 69 News
According to Police, the first attack happened at 1:46AM Sunday. Three Hispanic males wearing hoodies stormed into the store and began to ruff up the store clerk.
As Spanish language is now becoming a significant part of life in the Lehigh Valley, I think it is OK to start a thread.

Spanish has the word rufián which is directly from Latin ruffianus, but it is usually more specifically a pimp rather than a "tough guy". The word rough is not Latin in origin but from Anglo Saxon language.

Spanish and French are both derived from the Language of the Romans or (Romance Languages). English inherited many Latin based words via older versions of French primarily through the four centuries that the Normans ruled England.

So an English word like constructive comes from Middle French constructif which in term comes from Latin construere meaning "to heap up". A Spanish cognate is construir which means "to construct". Spanish also has the word constructivo which is largely synonymous with the English word.

The most common English words like play or get are Anglo Saxon or Old Norse in origin do not have cognates in Spanish. They are often translated by multiple words in Spanish according to different meanings. For instance a Spanish speaker does not associate the concepts of playing sports, playing a musical instrument, and playing with your head with one verb.

The English word cheat is not based on an Anglo Saxon word. It comes from Old French escheat , which ultimately comes from Latin ex- "out" + cadere "to fall". But despite the Latin origin of the word, the Spanish language does not have a word that means precisely "to cheat". Some Spanish speakers in the American Southwest use the Spanglish verb "cheat-ar" to mean "to cheat".

TRIVIA QUESTION (YOU CAN RESEARCH THE ANSWER) If cheat is a Latin based word, why doesn't it exist in Spanish as well?
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Old 09-20-2012, 10:59 AM
 
Location: Lehigh Valley, PA
2,309 posts, read 4,130,535 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PacoMartin View Post
As Spanish language is now becoming a significant part of life in the Lehigh Valley, I think it is OK to start a thread.
I would have to say Spanish is spoken in mostly inner city sections of the Lehigh Valley.
This is where you see a high concentration of Spanish speaking people and the businesses that cater to them.

These are also the only areas I see Spanish billboards.

Outside of center city Allentown, sections of Bethlehem and sections of Easton the only time I hear Spanish is by those that speak it amongst themselves.
An example are those that will not use English and have their children and grandchildren interpret their needs and desires into English to the rest of the local populous in order to conduct business.

Outside of the big box home improvement stores like Home Depot that display their signage in both languages I do not see Spanish printed on anything outside the center city areas.
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Old 09-20-2012, 02:37 PM
 
Location: Lehighton/Jim Thorpe area
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So the sentence should have read "Three Hispanic ruffs wearing hoodies stormed into the store and began to rough up the clerk."

Although they may or may not have been pimps

There is a Spanish language sign just past the Hickory Run Service Plaza on the PA Turnpike. At least there was one. It may not be there anymore.

I don't know the answer to the trivia question
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Old 09-20-2012, 05:11 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PacoMartin View Post
The English word cheat is not based on an Anglo Saxon word. It comes from Old French escheat , which ultimately comes from Latin ex- "out" + cadere "to fall". But despite the Latin origin of the word, the Spanish language does not have a word that means precisely "to cheat". Some Spanish speakers in the American Southwest use the Spanglish verb "cheat-ar" to mean "to cheat".

TRIVIA QUESTION (YOU CAN RESEARCH THE ANSWER) If cheat is a Latin based word, why doesn't it exist in Spanish as well?
The Latin cadere "to fall" always meant more than just a physical "fall". You could "fall from grace" or "fall out of favor". The Spanish verb is caer which also means "to fall" in the broad sense.

The Old French word, escheat, carried over into England the Norman conquest and literally mean "that which falls to one", so it referred legal term for revision of property to the state when the owner dies without heirs.

Naturally, the government confiscation of property is by nature contentious. A family rarely dies out without some distant cousin being alive. Gradually to the speakers of the German based English the word meant "a deceptive act" or to "deprive unfairly". The word didn't acquire it's common connotation of being sexually unfaithful until the 1930's.

While modern English has essentially two parent languages, the Germanic Old English or Anglo Saxon, plus Latin (via French). Spanish is largely derived from Latin (with a generous helping of Arabic considering the centuries that Spanish territory spent under Muslim rule). But it never developed the word "cheat" out of "to fall".

There are words for deception, swindler, etc. since no language could exist without similar words. But none of them mean exactly the same as "to cheat".

=============
Simpler question: What does ¡mira! mean in English? (It sounds like you are pronouncing a 'd' in Spanish)
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Old 09-20-2012, 08:10 PM
 
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About 10 years ago the Instituto Cervantez congratulated the USA. It has now passed both Colombia and Spain in number of Spanish speakers. The USA is now the second largest Spanish speaking nation in the world (behind Mexico),
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Old 09-20-2012, 11:35 PM
 
Location: Lehighton/Jim Thorpe area
2,095 posts, read 2,938,111 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PacoMartin View Post
The Latin cadere "to fall" always meant more than just a physical "fall". You could "fall from grace" or "fall out of favor". The Spanish verb is caer which also means "to fall" in the broad sense.

The Old French word, escheat, carried over into England the Norman conquest and literally mean "that which falls to one", so it referred legal term for revision of property to the state when the owner dies without heirs.

Naturally, the government confiscation of property is by nature contentious. A family rarely dies out without some distant cousin being alive. Gradually to the speakers of the German based English the word meant "a deceptive act" or to "deprive unfairly". The word didn't acquire it's common connotation of being sexually unfaithful until the 1930's.

While modern English has essentially two parent languages, the Germanic Old English or Anglo Saxon, plus Latin (via French). Spanish is largely derived from Latin (with a generous helping of Arabic considering the centuries that Spanish territory spent under Muslim rule). But it never developed the word "cheat" out of "to fall".

There are words for deception, swindler, etc. since no language could exist without similar words. But none of them mean exactly the same as "to cheat".

=============
Simpler question: What does ¡mira! mean in English? (It sounds like you are pronouncing a 'd' in Spanish)
Interesting!

I think it means "Look at that" or something along those lines. My Spanish is quite rusty and it was never very good to begin with anyway. I foolishly switched to French after one semester in Middle School, because I thought French was more romantic
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Old 09-21-2012, 12:32 AM
 
14,007 posts, read 14,291,665 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MatildaLoo View Post
Interesting!

I think it means "Look at that" or something along those lines. My Spanish is quite rusty and it was never very good to begin with anyway. I foolishly switched to French after one semester in Middle School, because I thought French was more romantic
¡mira alli! Look at that! ¡mira aqui! Look at this! ¡mira! Look!

French ends up being so useful. I suppose it would have stopped those ugly looks in Paris. It's my understanding that you must pronounce it correctly. You don't get credit for just trying.

I don't know about French, but Spanish can't directly translate common English sentences like "It is raining." In Spanish you don't know what the pronoun "it" refers to. Sometimes in English the subject is referred to as the "weather it".

Last edited by PacoMartin; 09-21-2012 at 01:03 AM..
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Old 09-21-2012, 02:01 AM
 
Location: Lehighton/Jim Thorpe area
2,095 posts, read 2,938,111 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PacoMartin View Post
¡mira alli! Look at that! ¡mira aqui! Look at this! ¡mira! Look!

French ends up being so useful. I suppose it would have stopped those ugly looks in Paris. It's my understanding that you must pronounce it correctly. You don't get credit for just trying.

I don't know about French, but Spanish can't directly translate common English sentences like "It is raining." In Spanish you don't know what the pronoun "it" refers to. Sometimes in English the subject is referred to as the "weather it".
I can read French to an extent but pronunciation is tough. Just like the Spanish "trilled R" and the gutteral sound of certain German words, French pronunciation takes a lot of practice.

There are also many nuances to the language, as with most. For example, the term "Je vous en prie" is a formal way of saying "You're welcome." Yet if you are with friends, you'd say "de rien" -- translated into "it's nothing."

And just like English, words are said very quickly! Luckily most everyone in France understands English; unfortunately in Paris it's almost a sport to pretend they don't in order to befuddle English speaking visitors.

I'm not entirely sure about pronoun confusion in French. It's not something I've really encountered. However, I would imagine that there might be similar confusion since French and Spanish have many similarities, both being Romance languages.
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Old 09-21-2012, 05:52 AM
 
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WFMZ headline: Camden, NJ ciudad más pobre del país; Reading en sexto lugar según cifras del Censo
Camden NJ is the poorest city in the country, Reading in sixth place according to Census statistics

New figures released by the U.S. Census Bureau show Reading is no longer the poorest city in the country.

The word land is an Old English word. We could also say "Camden NJ is the poorest city in the land" but it sounds quaint and archaic. After the Norman conquest, the Old French word contree, from Vulgar Latin (terra) contrata meaning "(land) lying opposite" or "(land) spread before one" , The English derivative country became the word of choice for a large area of land occupied by a foreign people (or our own land in comparison to their land). Of course, the older word is maintained for more pedestrian usage, like I bought a piece of land, or more sentimental use: "Sweet Land of Liberty".

Interestingly the Spanish word país, did not come directly from Latin but was from the French word pays. The French word comes from the Old French païs, from Late Latin pāgēnsis (“inhabitant of a district”), derived from Latin pāgus (“countryside; district”). Cognates exist in Catalan, Portuguese, and Italian.

So we have an etymological oddity. Both the Spanish and English words came from French. But Spanish picked up the word that more directly means district. English picked up the word that is related to contrary.

TRIVIA QUESTION: There is a very common Spanish word that everyone knows (even English speakers) that is used as an interjection during the ancient national sport. However, if you think about it, the word is actually Arabic in origin. What is the word, and what is the Arab equivalent? You have to figure out the sport.
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