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That doesn't say anything like you had been spouting off about. All that says is that a REPORT informing Congress of the actions must be made 48 hours PRIOR to hostilities. Where does it say AFTER hostilities began? It doesn't.
That's just stupid. The 48 hours requirement commences "in any case in which United States Armed Forces are introduced."
Note the tense of the phrase "are introduced." And then consider a course in remedial English.
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Originally Posted by SourD
Also, the 60 day thing doesn't apply, we weren't attacked.
So please point out where it says AFTER and not submitting a report PRIOR? It says no such thing. Common sense would tell me that this is required BEFORE hand, not after.
That's just stupid. The 48 hours requirement commences "in any case in which United States Armed Forces are introduced."
Note the tense of the phrase "are introduced." And then consider a course in remedial English.
The law asserts no such requirement.
Ooooh. That hurts my feelings.
Although it is not specified what 48 hour time frame they are talking about, many online articles say it is after. BUT, Congressional Dems say that the ACT doesn't allow what he is trying to do. They say he is ONLY allowed to do this if America is under a direct threat or is attacked. Now Obama is trying to make that case so his illegal actions all of a sudden become legal.
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In the President's letter to Congress, he is claiming that Libya is a threat to US national security. Legally, this provides an out from the requirements of the War Powers Act. Even though rationally WE ALL KNOW Libya was not an imminent threat to our national security -- even in the president's letter, the threat laid out is tangential at best, just the general "growing instability" in Libya. So.. if the bar is that low then Congress never has to authorize any war then -- a president could always just say that instability in general is an imminent threat.
A requirement for prior notification within 48 hours.
A notification one second prior would meet that requirement.
A notification 49 hours prior would violate it.
Are you you starting to get a handle on the stupidity and worthlessness of such a requirement?
Within 48 hours afterward however... okay. Now THAT makes sense.
Whatever, the wording is vague. But it is still illegal. America was not under any immediate threat nor was attacked. That is what the ACT is about. AMERICA BEING ATTACKED and we don't have the time to go to Congress.
For some reason, I thought this man was all about seeking proper constitutional authority for his actions.
Not according to this man.
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Gingrich, speaking with Fox News' Greta Van Susteren last night, said that the U.S. should "exercise a no fly zone this evening" and that the U.S. should proceed unilaterally. On forming a coalition with other nations, he said, "The United States doesn't need anybody's permission. We don't need to have NATO, who frankly, won't bring much to the fight. We don't need to have the United Nations."
Although it is not specified what 48 hour time frame they are talking about, many online articles say it is after. BUT, Congressional Dems say that the ACT doesn't allow what he is trying to do. They say he is ONLY allowed to do this if America is under a direct threat or is attacked. Now Obama is trying to make that case so his illegal actions all of a sudden become legal.
What kind of act would have such a stipulation if it would be immediately known (even with the technology available in 1973) by the press that a military action was taking place in that timeframe? That act assumed that congress lives under a rock?
It's about as stupid as the interpretation that only militia should be allowed to bear arms.
Apparently Reagan, the darling of the Republicans, did not get authorization from congress before bombing Libya!!! Did Reagan set precedence for this?
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