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The couple have been married for 37 years and have six children together. Mr Chapti is an Indian national and does not speak, read or write English.
Mrs Chapti has reportedly been travelling between India and Leicester for around 15 years but has now applied for her husband to come and live in the UK with her.
Do you agree with her? that this is a human rights issue?
The couple have been married for 37 years and have six children together. Mr Chapti is an Indian national and does not speak, read or write English.
Mrs Chapti has reportedly been travelling between India and Leicester for around 15 years but has now applied for her husband to come and live in the UK with her.
Do you agree with her? that this is a human rights issue?
No, it is not a human rights issue to try and change laws of a country that you were not born in. From the statement made, the husband is not even a citizen or legal resident, yet the wife wants the law changed to suit his circumstances. Human rights? No. Individual pandering? Yes.
when you move to a different country you LEARN the ways of the new country
my maternal g-grandfater came to this country in the 1880s from Austria...he could read, speak and write SEVEN DIFFERENT LANGUAGES,,,none of them english...the first thing he did was learn the english(american) language..from then on he would say "I am now an american, I will speak the american language"
Ah..but we have been preached to that this is now a global community and multi-culturalism is good for a country and we need to live with diversity and be tolerant of all in this global community.
The couple have been married for 37 years and have six children together. Mr Chapti is an Indian national and does not speak, read or write English.
Mrs Chapti has reportedly been travelling between India and Leicester for around 15 years but has now applied for her husband to come and live in the UK with her.
Do you agree with her? that this is a human rights issue?
It certainly violates the First amendment, unless someone can show me a compelling state interest - which outside of some very specific contexts, you aren't going to be able to do.
It certainly violates the First amendment, unless someone can show me a compelling state interest - which outside of some very specific contexts, you aren't going to be able to do.
Failsauce.
Ummm, you did notice that they are applying to the UK, right? There is no First Amendment in the UK. Nice job of actually reading.
I generally don't read the OP's links or posts, as I find them to be mostly useless.
So let me rephrase my answer:
Government telling people what language they have to speak is a communist, authoritarian concept.
You really should read a post before responding.
As for what government tells people what is required, that is your opinion, not law. As such, you are welcome to it, but it affects the situation not at all.
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