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The word "void" does not appear anywhere in my post.
It apprared in my post, and you replied "it is not", meaning "it is not void".
If you meant something else, then that's cool.
Look, this law was drafted to be an anti-sharia law, which would make it impossible to enforce any aspects of sharia law, but you (and the other poster) are trying to argue that even with this law, you can still apply sharia law any way you, want as long as it does not violate the constitution. The intent was to shut down sharia law, but they accidentally also shut down the Jewish law. The text says that the court rulings are void it they are based in full, or in part on foreign or religious laws.
Reading the bill doesn't appear to have done much in your case, as you continue to dodge the issue of "foreign laws and ideas" which is part and parcel of the bill. It certainly doesn't help when you get overly defensive about it not targeting specific religions (Islam and, probably unintentionally, Judaism), hence I asked for an example and you presented one that was about Islam!
There is something disingenuous about your claims. Either that or you're not getting what you read. The funny thing is, your example pretty much talks about government's authority in controlling decisions made for religious workplace. You could have substituted Islam with Catholic church and firing of employees with the highly advertised contraception issue. In that case, though, you would have called it a violation of first amendment. No?
It doesn't bar Jewish Courts, it simply doesn't allow for punishments that violate Federal or State law.
From the bill -
It doesn't bar Jewish Courts, it simply doesn't allow for punishments that violate Federal or State law.
does not grant the parties affectedby the ruling or decision the same fundamental liberties,rights, and privileges guaranteed by the State Constitution orthe United States Constitution.
Basically, religious entities would continue to function as they always have but secular legal entities would not be influenced by their possibly more narrow or extreme rulings.
Seems perfectly reasonable to me.
I suppose that the OP might have intended this as a lesson in the laws of unintended consequences - i.e. throw out the net to catch tuna and get lots of dolphins too, but, I fail to see why it would have ever been acceptable for our judicial system to be influenced or superceded by a religious court in any matter that is sanctioned by the state.
One can argue that marriage and divorce should not require licensing and/or court ordered dissolution but, unless/until such time as these are removed from that purview, it is a moot point.
Senate panel rams through bill Muslims and Jews call discriminatory
Andrew Rosenkranz, regional director for the Anti Defamation League, said that the decisions of Jewish tribunals called Bet Dins, which often handle divorce proceedings, are often converted into civil divorce decrees by the courts. But under the Senate bill, and another ready for a vote by the entire House, an observant Orthodox couple would "effectively be barred from following their faith and using a Jewish tribunal to dissolve their marriage," he said.
oh please
1. catholics use it too..its called an annulment
2. NONE of those have anything to due with the STATE LAWS...the STATE grants the marriage and the divorce
3. as a catholic you can get a divorse, but it is NOT RECOGNIZED by the church...same for muslims, and orthodox jews
Basically, religious entities would continue to function as they always have but secular legal entities would not be influenced by their possibly more narrow or extreme rulings.
Seems perfectly reasonable to me.
I suppose that the OP might have intended this as a lesson in the laws of unintended consequences - i.e. throw out the net to catch tuna and get lots of dolphins too, but, I fail to see why it would have ever been acceptable for our judicial system to be influenced or superceded by a religious court in any matter that is sanctioned by the state.
The Jewish court has been used only when both parties are Jewish, and both agree to use the Jewish court. If one party wants to use the regular court, then they use the regular court. No one has complained about the Jewish rulings because it is pretty much the same as two guys settling their issues on their own. Who cares? But now that the government has decided to intervene they created an issue out of a non-issue because they didn't think about how the ruling will affect non-muslims.
1. catholics use it too..its called an annulment
2. NONE of those have anything to due with the STATE LAWS...the STATE grants the marriage and the divorce
3. as a catholic you can get a divorse, but it is NOT RECOGNIZED by the church...same for muslims, and orthodox jews
The Jewish court "Beth Din" is used by many Jews during their divorces and other civil disputes and they handle property division, pre-nups, custody, loans etc, but going forward such rulings in the Jewish court will be void.
I don't see anything discriminatory. It prevents judges from using foreign opinions, laws, etc. that run counter to the Florida and US Constitutions and that violates a person's natural rights. Are you against that?
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