Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
I keep hearing the same bogus lines from conservatives about this:
"All crimes are hate crimes."
"Hate crime laws are only used against white defendants."
"A crime is a crime no matter what the motive."
In fact, long before hate crime laws were even proposed the criminal law made distinctions based on the degree of culpability, often based on the state of mind of the offender. Someone who commits a homicide through negligence is punished much less harshly than someone who commits first degree murder.
In addition, criminals who are believed to pose a greater likelihood of reoffending, or posing greater harm to society, are often punished more harshly. For instance, we have habitual offender charges or a higher charge for someone who commits a murder for hire.
It is entirely legitimate for society to conclude that a defendant who assaults someone because he has a bias against the group of which the victim is a member is more dangerous to society, and more destructive of the fabric of society, than someone who gets into a fight in a bar.
Should the federal government require all states to adopt hate crimes legislation?
On what provision of the Constitution would such a requirement be based?
Please register to post and access all features of our very popular forum. It is free and quick. Over $68,000 in prizes has already been given out to active posters on our forum. Additional giveaways are planned.
Detailed information about all U.S. cities, counties, and zip codes on our site: City-data.com.