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You always hear about some politician "flip-flopping" and it's always implied as a negative. But is it? Always? I understand that people vote for politicians believing they will never change their views. But if the politician doesn't explicitly promise to never change the particular view in question or any of his/her views, who da blame for when they do change their opinion on something? Is it the politician's misdeed or the voter's folly?
Is it really a given that the politician is swearing to never change any of his/her views? I guess that's the question, ultimately.
Switching a position for the approval of others is insincere. If the person changed his perspective after a lot of thought and consideration then that I see as sincere.
Something like with Obama where it's clearly for votes. It's not that he's for it. It's that he was for it, then against it, and back again. Like we're suppose to believe hes suddenly that close minded when he happens to be running on the national stage. He's an intelligent, open minded person. Everyone knew he was wasn't against marriage equality.
He was for it in the 90s, as he should be, and was for it in the 00s, but he chose to lie to appeal to close minded fools. It's pretty...transparent (as he promised in 08, but didn't deliver on), what happened.
Now, when someone initially votes for something like the Iraq Resolution, but later speaks out against it once it turns into a huge debacle and was clearly built on things that weren't true, that's not "flip flopping", as the right would try to say. That's PERCEPTION. Nothing wrong with it. The right should have tried it, rather than demonize France as if they did something wrong because they (France) didn't let themselves get dragged into the Iraq Debacle...
Worse flip flop that comes to mind is the democrats voting to go into Iraq and then taking the position against Bush for going in... say what!!!!.. and that was their strongest fight . Going against something they voted for.. BIG CREEPY HYPOCRITES that have NO character.
You always hear about some politician "flip-flopping" and it's always implied as a negative. But is it? Always? I understand that people vote for politicians believing they will never change their views. But if the politician doesn't explicitly promise to never change the particular view in question or any of his/her views, who da blame for when they do change their opinion on something? Is it the politician's misdeed or the voter's folly?
Is it really a given that the politician is swearing to never change any of his/her views? I guess that's the question, ultimately.
If it is your side , their view has evolved. if its the other side they are flip floppers
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