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Depends on who's doing the counting. Many Argentines of full Italian family but are just as "Hispanic" as a Spaniard in Spain. But the "Italian" American cousins of those Argentines in the US are anglo white, NOT Hispanic.
i am familiar with white latinos, i am one. and why is the argentine considered hispanic while the guido is not? spanish speaking origin.
i am familiar with white latinos, i am one. and why is the argentine considered hispanic while the guido is not? spanish speaking origin.
Yep, and it's a pretty broad brush. They're pretty much treated as a monoblock group here by the political class and the "mainstream press" that serves their interests.
Italy ain't Spain; different languages. An "Italian" from Argentina IS Hispanic.
why you keep on bringing up italians from argentina? dude, i am a german, blonde haired blue eyed guy from mexico. i am aware of white latino, I AM ONE.
if yer from a spanish speaking country in the US yer, hispanic. that simple. nothing to do with race.
not that any of it matters, argentina, USA, mexico, etc all suck. hate all those countries.
Sort of. However someone who never spoke a word of Spanish and whose parents never spoke a word of Spanish is also considered to be a hispanic. A Mayan Indian from Guatemala who just crossed the border who speaks no Spanish is a hispanic, but people from Spain generally would not say they are hispanic but European even if they speak Spanish.
People from Spain wouldn't see how speaking Spanish makes them a separate race category from French or Italians or Germans. Not eveyone from Spain for example would be incapable of ever learning English or would have more trouble than someone from Italy.
But why would having Spanish speaking ancestors make you a separate category but having Polish or French or Italian speaking ancestors would not? Wouldn't people of Spain be as European as anyone else in Europe? Greeks are considered white -- and do not have a separate language-racial category on the census -- Russians have a different language background as well as Germans, Swedes and so on. Why would only. What's the point in making language of ancestors some separate racial category?
Someone whose English speaking family has lived in the USA since 1900 but originated in Mexico has to be in some special language category, but someone who just arrived from Russia or Greece and cannot speak English just jumps into the box for whites? Does that make sense?
Latino or Hispanic is not a race. If we are to make new race catagories then they need to be Mestizo for anyone who is of mixed white European (Spanish) and native indian.
What a load of crap! Considering the people who use most Govermental programs are whites! When the Census created the category for "hispanics or Latinos" in the early 1970s there really weren't many of us to begin. As the population grew they started making sub categories. The only thing that ties hispanics together is language because even culture varies rom ine hispanic group to another.
If the Census wants to keep redifining more sub groups in the US I really don't see what the the problem is.
Wrong! In proportion to their numbers Hispanics use more welfare type programs than any others.
What's your opinion of the proposed changes to the census for how to count Latinos?
As I get more confused trying to follow this thread, I appreciate the original question. With each passing generation it will become both more difficult and pointless to try.
In fact it would be great if some day this country stops counting all ethnic and racial groups.
At least I hope so..."some day"
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