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Historical Record: "The provision is, that ‘all persons born in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens.’ That means ‘subject to the complete jurisdiction thereof.’ What do we mean by ‘complete jurisdiction thereof?’ Not owing allegiance to anybody else. That is what it means."
Trumbull's role in drafting and introducing the Civil Rights Act of 1866 and the 14th Amendment: Committee History
"It cannot be said of any Indian who owes allegiance, partial allegiance if you please, to some other Government that he is 'subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.' " http://memory.loc.gov/ll/llcg/073/0000/00152893.tif
no it isn't. you claim that those with knowledge of history and the US constitution support your position. i'm asking you to support this claim and cite specific people.
Yes, it's my OPINION. Just like YOU have an OPINION about Wong and Ankeny.
And in my opinion, they were wrong. They should have said that the men were born citizens, but that their subsequent decisions as adults to live as citizens of other countries was binding as long as they chose to live in those other countries. If these men had been applying to move back to the United States, then they could have done so. They were, instead, petitioning to continue to live in other countries and enjoy all the benefits of citizenship in those countries, but to avoid the obligations of citizenship in those countries. The United States does not owe protections to individuals who are living as citizens of other countries and who have simply failed to renounce their American citizenship. Their American citizenship does not supplant their foreign citizenship for mere matters of convenience.
The fact that you cite these scumbags to support your argument actually weakens it.
You fail. That has nothing to do with UK birthright citizenship, but only with a one time change in British citizenship laws. I think we can add an inability to read along with your other timeless virtues.
As I pointed out earlier... even a US Citizen born on US soil to 2 US Citizen parents must prove their citizenship before they can access the benefits thereof.
no it isn't. you claim that those with knowledge of history and the US constitution support your position.
My positionis the 14th Amendment and the historic record.
Here they are, for your reference:
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
14th Amendment: "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States"
Trumbull in the Congressional Record: "The provision is, that ‘all persons born in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens.’ That means ‘subject to the complete jurisdiction thereof.’ What do we mean by ‘complete jurisdiction thereof?’ Not owing allegiance to anybody else. That is what it means."
The U.S. nationality law requires one to be "subject to the jurisdiction" of the U.S. We already know the definition of that requirement because it's a matter of public record.
Yes. We do. Because the US Supreme Court has spoken.
Quote:
The real object of the Fourteenth Amendment of the Constitution, in qualifying the words, "All persons born in the United States" by the addition "and subject to the jurisdiction thereof," would appear to have been to exclude, by the fewest and fittest words (besides children of members of the Indian tribes, standing in a peculiar relation to the National Government, unknown to the common law), the two classes of cases -- children born of alien enemies in hostile occupation and children of diplomatic representatives of a foreign State -- both of which, as has already been shown, by the law of England and by our own law from the time of the first settlement of the English colonies in America, had been recognized exceptions to the fundamental rule of citizenship by birth within the country.
.... to avoid citing educated people who concur with your opinion.
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