Connection of racism and gun ownership? Study says yes.
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Uh...unless there are time travelers, it goes without saying that one cannot reside in the past. Secondly, black oppression was not limited to the era of slavery? This. People who are attempting to discredit the truth, always use half truths. Slavery was simply the first half of black oppression in this nation, which has been legal up until the 1960's and which still goes on today in less oppressive forms of discrimination, the proof of which is documented in studies like this. Thus, we are hardly talking about a phenomenon that is PAST TENSE. The only thing that is past tense, in relationship to black oppression, is the DEGREE there of, as it certainly has not ceased because white racism has not ceased as countless studies, which people like you always finds way to dismiss, confirm this racism.
I do see black and white. Anyone who says that they do not see color is a liar. What I do not do is assume one race is superior or inferior to another. Hence, since I do not assume one race is inferior or superior, then there must be a REASON why one group performs or behaves consistently in an inferior manner. When I attempt to use history to provide the REASON, given that the present is the creation of the past, people like you then cry foul and say its an EXCUSE. Well, if its an excuse, and one assumes that blacks and whites are inherently equal, then WHAT is the reason for the inequality in behavior and conditions? If the past did not accrue and unequal present, from an unequal past, then what did, because everything is the way it is for a REASON.
I mean....to me its not rocket science. Every action produces reactions and hence spending 300 years mistreating people and treating them as unequal will create a reaction upon the present....but you call that EXCUSES. Yet....you cower at providing a reason, while rejecting the one offered.
The reason: some people are ignorant. Ignorance is colorblind. Ignorance does not know what is white or black.
And you are the one who said that you expect the straw man from me . Not once did I say ALL. Where is the EVIDENCE that I said or implied ALL that you say is so evident? That is hyperbolic BS on your part so that you can create a tenable argument against that premise. What is true for the whole is not necessarily true of its parts and what is true of some parts is not necessarily true for the whole. Remember, ALL blacks are not "dysfunctional". What I am explaining is the statistical differences in the dysfunction between the races.
What about Jews? First, Judaism is a religion, not a race. There are black Jews (Ethiopian). Secondly, Just because the Jews were oppressed does not mean that there oppression was in degree or kind, the equivalent to what blacks experienced in America. My CONSISTENT premise is EQUALITY between human groups or races. Hence, if the outcome is DIFFERENT between human groups/races, then the experiences were different in degree or kind, time and or space. If one really believes that there is no racial or group supremacy, they cannot conclude anything but different experiences explaining different outcomes. If you are telling me, essentially, that the Jewish experience = Black experience, but the Jews are much more successful and prosperous, then you are telling me that Jewish people are somehow superior to blacks. In other words.....blacks and Jews are inherently unequal to begin with, to the degree than there minds are superior and do not produce the propensity of irresponsibility that seems to be afflicting blacks disproportionately.
That HINT, obviously, is in the accuracy of the logic. I see no logic backing your argument. Do black people have problems of their own creation. Yep....and so do whites. Do black people have criminals who commit crime? Yep....and so do whites. Hence, I am not arguing that blacks are not culpable for crime and problems.....I am arguing that they are no more culpable than are whites and therefore the DIFFERENCE in the rate of dysfunction between the races is rooted in the historical unequal treatment of the races. Is there an irresponsibility gene that occurs more in blacks?
Of course every life is responsible for itself....but every life does not face the same degree of challenges and obstacles that determines the outcome of that life.
By speaking about the black experience it's quite clear that you're speaking about the collective. So by doing so you're implicitly say all...whether you directly typed the words or not. Or at least all that espouse some degree of criminality. And I agree...all blacks certainly are not dysfunctional...not even close.
With regards to Jews...I'm not referring to race...I'm referring to a collective experience. Being persecuted because of an intangible like race or religion. And the propensity to be involved in crime isn't the issue either...it's the persecution they've experienced throughout the history of Judaism...from Egyptian times pre-Muhammad to holocaust era. Therefore the notion that criminality is a direct correlator to past experiences, pains, and injustices doesnt add up. If it were the case...it would serve as a constant throughout all groups that share a common injustice.
With regards to culpability, The issue isn't previous crimes or injustices. That simply can not be the answer because other groups who have shared a collective pain or injustice dont display the levels of criminality that african american young men do. If previous injustice serves as the control...it would have to be a constant...it isnt...so it doesnt add up. The issue is the dissolution of the black household and a culture that permits bad behavior under the guise of "getting back at the oppressor." Again,I would refer you to Don Lemon's video.
And you are the one who said that you expect the straw man from me . Not once did I say ALL. Where is the EVIDENCE that I said or implied ALL that you say is so evident? That is hyperbolic BS on your part so that you can create a tenable argument against that premise. What is true for the whole is not necessarily true of its parts and what is true of some parts is not necessarily true for the whole. Remember, ALL blacks are not "dysfunctional". What I am explaining is the statistical differences in the dysfunction between the races.
What about Jews? First, Judaism is a religion, not a race. There are black Jews (Ethiopian). Secondly, Just because the Jews were oppressed does not mean that there oppression was in degree or kind, the equivalent to what blacks experienced in America. My CONSISTENT premise is EQUALITY between human groups or races. Hence, if the outcome is DIFFERENT between human groups/races, then the experiences were different in degree or kind, time and or space. If one really believes that there is no racial or group supremacy, they cannot conclude anything but different experiences explaining different outcomes. If you are telling me, essentially, that the Jewish experience = Black experience, but the Jews are much more successful and prosperous, then you are telling me that Jewish people are somehow superior to blacks. In other words.....blacks and Jews are inherently unequal to begin with, to the degree than there minds are superior and do not produce the propensity of irresponsibility that seems to be afflicting blacks disproportionately.
That HINT, obviously, is in the accuracy of the logic. I see no logic backing your argument. Do black people have problems of their own creation. Yep....and so do whites. Do black people have criminals who commit crime? Yep....and so do whites. Hence, I am not arguing that blacks are not culpable for crime and problems.....I am arguing that they are no more culpable than are whites and therefore the DIFFERENCE in the rate of dysfunction between the races is rooted in the historical unequal treatment of the races. Is there an irresponsibility gene that occurs more in blacks?
Of course every life is responsible for itself....but every life does not face the same degree of challenges and obstacles that determines the outcome of that life.
Oppressed.....they were slaughtered. Over the course of 12 years it is estimated that 11 million Jews were killed. Jewish people still remember, they just don't use it as an excuse. You could stand to learn something from them. Stop holding a grudge.
I believe that racism still exists and will in some form always exists, i simply moved on and not let it define my life or existence.... I am not ignoring it, I am choosing to not be a part of it...
By speaking about the black experience it's quite clear that you're speaking about the collective. So by doing so you're implicitly say all...whether you directly typed the words or not. Or at least all that espouse some degree of criminality. And I agree...all blacks certainly are not dysfunctional...not even close.
That is not true. If I say America elected a new President it does not therefore follow that All Americans voted for the person elected President.
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With regards to Jews...I'm not referring to race...I'm referring to a collective experience. Being persecuted because of an intangible like race or religion. And the propensity to be involved in crime isn't the issue either...it's the persecution they've experienced throughout the history of Judaism...from Egyptian times pre-Muhammad to holocaust era. Therefore the notion that criminality is a direct correlator to past experiences, pains, and injustices doesnt add up. If it were the case...it would serve as a constant throughout all groups that share a common injustice.
Those were different eras....besides....you have to study the Jews in the same context that African Americans are in, which is in the land of their oppression and not far removed from that Oppression. In other words, look at the conditions of Jews in the land of their oppressors not long after their oppression. Furthermore, their persecution did not coincide with an era of drugs and guns either, television or a host of other things that can aggravate an already existing condition. Its apples to oranges, however, Jewish people did have their criminality during the era of prohibition in the US.
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With regards to culpability, The issue isn't previous crimes or injustices. That simply can not be the answer because other groups who have shared a collective pain or injustice dont display the levels of criminality that african american young men do. If previous injustice serves as the control...it would have to be a constant...it isnt...so it doesnt add up. The issue is the dissolution of the black household and a culture that permits bad behavior under the guise of "getting back at the oppressor." Again,I would refer you to Don Lemon's video.
Again....the experiences are NOT the same. Your argument assumes that being oppressed does not vary in degree or kind....which is false. Even as black people our historical experiences have not been exactly the same to impact each person exactly the same. However, there have been enough shared experiences to give us a common umbrella of experienced that represents the "black experience". Furthermore, racial oppression is not the same as religious or ethnic oppression because in the latter one can choose to "opt out". People cannot look at a person and tell what religion they are or whites cannot generally look an other whites and know for sure if they are Irish, English, Polish, French, German or whatever. The most efficacious form of discrimination, hence damaging, is discrimination where the out group is easily identifiable. There were "blacks" who passed for whites, back in the days of deeper racism and discrimination.....and guess what......they did better in life than obvious blacks. The opportunities to "pass" and escape discrimination and its long term generation impact is much easier for Religious or Ethnic discrimination.
Connection of racism and gun ownership? Study says yes.
One word for your idiotic study........... BUll$hit!
Exactly.
The #1 cause of death for black males between the ages of 18 and 35 is first degree murder by another black male using a firearm.
Is this study trying to say that black males between the ages of 18 and 35 are overwhelmingly "racist"?
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. Not once did I say ALL. Where is the EVIDENCE that I said or implied ALL that you say is so evident? That is hyperbolic BS on your part so that you can create a tenable argument against that premise. What is true for the whole is not necessarily true of its parts and what is true of some parts is not necessarily true for the whole. Remember, ALL blacks are not "dysfunctional". What I am explaining is the statistical differences in the dysfunction between the races. 
