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Old 08-25-2016, 09:46 AM
 
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Articles: 'Moderate'? Meet the World's 'Most Influential Muslim'
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Old 08-25-2016, 09:49 AM
 
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Political Cult.
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Old 08-25-2016, 02:45 PM
 
Location: Florida
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Both
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Old 08-25-2016, 02:51 PM
 
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This Muslim explains it really well.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rfSIn1vw3Q4
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:01 PM
 
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Interesting that no one seems to think explaining their answer is important.

I have a question though. Why isn't this same question being posed to the Jews? The Old Testament is the Hebrew Bible and if you've read even a little bit of it, you know the first few books (The Torah, in Judaism) is a set of laws. It outlines crime and punishment and acceptable societal behavior. If Sharia is a set of laws, and it is, that come from the Koran, why is this question only being posed to Muslims? Certainly the Jews are equally deserving of this question if the primary justification (which comes from the OP's article, as that's the closest thing to even an attempt at explaining a thought) is the Sharia is a code of law then it must at least be a political ideology and a religion, then the Jews must also be asked the same question. Arguably, so could many religions, but the Jews just so happen to be the easiest comparison since the Koran is basically Old Testament fanfiction.
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:03 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chronic65 View Post
Both -- just like Christianity, Judaism, etc.
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:14 PM
 
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Cult...just like every other religion.
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:16 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by skepticratic View Post
Interesting that no one seems to think explaining their answer is important.

I have a question though. Why isn't this same question being posed to the Jews? The Old Testament is the Hebrew Bible and if you've read even a little bit of it, you know the first few books (The Torah, in Judaism) is a set of laws. It outlines crime and punishment and acceptable societal behavior. If Sharia is a set of laws, and it is, that come from the Koran, why is this question only being posed to Muslims? Certainly the Jews are equally deserving of this question if the primary justification (which comes from the OP's article, as that's the closest thing to even an attempt at explaining a thought) is the Sharia is a code of law then it must at least be a political ideology and a religion, then the Jews must also be asked the same question. Arguably, so could many religions, but the Jews just so happen to be the easiest comparison since the Koran is basically Old Testament fanfiction.
Simply because Jews don't pose a threat.
The cannibals in Amazon forest are not being discussed either, for the same reason.

There are terrorist organizations spread all across the world from Thailand to England, and 99% of them belong to one religion.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_o...rrorist_groups

The fresh converts to only one religion constantly 'misunderstand' their religion.
https://wikiislam.net/wiki/Converts_to_Islam

Islam is currently occupying 50+ countries, and I say occupying not because every single country was an Ex-Infidel country and was invaded by Muslims, but because even today the punishment for apostasy from Islam is death.
In these 50+ countries; Gay Pride Parades are not allowed, Women are chattel, and the Infidels who are the original inhabitants of the land live as second-class citizens.
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:22 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LogicalDiscord View Post
Then ignorance rules the day. To claim Christianity is anywhere near that of Islam in its demands of conformity by the people of the world is to be devious in nature.

Go ahead, outline for us how Christian culture is like Islam.

Yeah...

Thought so.

Run along malcontent!
When Christianity had the concomitant political power that it once had, it was just as dangerous and malevolent as any other cult.

Majority Christian nations have had a more influential rendezvous with modernity than Islam has, but that's DESPITE Christianity, not because of it. If the church had its way, they'd be just as brutal as they were many years ago. The church didn't moderate itself voluntarily. Their power was usurped because people became more enlightened. That happened also DESPITE the church.

So don't be so haughty.
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Old 08-25-2016, 04:24 PM
 
Location: New Albany, Indiana (Greater Louisville)
11,974 posts, read 25,406,804 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by skepticratic View Post
Interesting that no one seems to think explaining their answer is important.

I have a question though. Why isn't this same question being posed to the Jews? The Old Testament is the Hebrew Bible and if you've read even a little bit of it, you know the first few books (The Torah, in Judaism) is a set of laws. It outlines crime and punishment and acceptable societal behavior. If Sharia is a set of laws, and it is, that come from the Koran, why is this question only being posed to Muslims? Certainly the Jews are equally deserving of this question if the primary justification (which comes from the OP's article, as that's the closest thing to even an attempt at explaining a thought) is the Sharia is a code of law then it must at least be a political ideology and a religion, then the Jews must also be asked the same question. Arguably, so could many religions, but the Jews just so happen to be the easiest comparison since the Koran is basically Old Testament fanfiction.
Fair question. The answer is that few Jews follow most of what their holy book says to do, many are in fact who are non religious and only Jewish culturally. There are many Muslims who don't do all the Koran says to do but more than Judaism or Christianity there are many who believe and obey the Koran and Hadiths word for word.


I have no problem allowing in Muslims who are moderate enough to live with our separation of religion and state, but we can't allow in religious extremist of any kind. Recent example would be the wife of the San Bernardino shooter, who came over for the purpose of martyrdom.
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