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There is a park. For one hundred years the kids played in the park. A neighboring land owner then claimed the park for himself based on deed language. The landowner gets a judge to agree the park belongs to him. Landowner can't evict the kids without a change in the law. The landowner then goes to the Florida legislature to change the law to allow him to kick the kids out of the park. The Legislature passes the law. The homeowner then kicks the kids out of the park.
Is it legal? Who knows? The law is under appeal.
A better analogy? There is a barren lot in a housing development that has not been sold. The neighborhood kids play on it. You buy that lot and put up a house. Can those kids still come over and play in your yard, run through your house and help themselves to whatever is in your fridge?
no reading comprehension counts. the parcel was uninhabitable and his parcel still extended to the dunes. they only allowed him to bound from the dune to the road if he shored up the dunes. he did not own the land between the dune and high water line. it was still public.
How do beaches differ from any other piece of property? Those that refuse to understand property rights have a poor understanding of freedom.
That's peasant talk -beaches belong to everyone.
If you don't believe that you should be able to walk the length of the coastline in your country, then you've been brainwashed.
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