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Mao ze-Dong said it best: “Political power grows out of the barrel of a gun”
The lefties understand this completely, they just want to be damn sure their friends are the only ones with the guns.
Indeed. What was the very first thing Stalin did after WW2? Yep. Everybody had to stack arms that wasnt in the regular army. All resistance fighters, STACK ARMS! No civilians with guns.
Gee I wonder why. Yes, that's rhetorical. According to CalGuy that's what the 2A means. Soooo...I wonder why the new US government didnt do that? Strange.
Since the regular citizens were supposed to NOT be armed but "well regulated." LOL. 18th century language doesn't mean the same thing for that phrase as our Stalinist/Leninist leftist friends today read it.
Well regulated can only mean government control. So who does" the people" refer to in the1A? 3d, 4th, 5th and so on? It cant mean the general population. The 2A doesn't. Soooo, who?
"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
In modern language it would read:
"Since an armed and capable populace is necessary for security and freedom, the right of ordinary people to own and carry guns and other such weapons cannot be restricted or taken away."
"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
In modern language it would read:
"Since an armed and capable populace is necessary for security and freedom, the right of ordinary people to own and carry guns and other such weapons cannot be restricted or taken away."
Su.s it up pretty well. But folks such as a couple we see in here see it differently
To them it would read "Since militia is needed to act in the stead of a regular standing army as of this day citizens who are willing to be retained in this role will be overseen and controlled by the new government . They will be allowed the right to keep and bear arms for this purpose until a proper standing Army can control the general population "
LMAO Yeah, you betcha. Then I suppose the1st amendment would read.
"Congress will ensure that the country will be a strictly secular nation and will ensure the people adhere to this. Congress will also oversee any assembly, media sources and ensure any petition by the people of grievances with Congress is strictly supervised. "
Su.s it up pretty well. But folks such as a couple we see in here see it differently
To them it would read "Since militia is needed to act in the stead of a regular standing army as of this day citizens who are willing to be retained in this role will be overseen and controlled by the new government . They will be allowed the right to keep and bear arms for this purpose until a proper standing Army can control the general population "
LMAO Yeah, you betcha. Then I suppose the1st amendment would read.
"Congress will ensure that the country will be a strictly secular nation and will ensure the people adhere to this. Congress will also oversee any assembly, media sources and ensure any petition by the people of grievances with Congress is strictly supervised. "
Or something like that.
For anyone who looks at it with open eyes it is reasonably clear that the intent of the second was to permit revolution against a tyrannical government.
The USSC of course decided that is not true. Again the grand conspiracy. If you do not like what the law actually says you simply misinterpret it to what you desire.
And then it compounded the absurd by suggesting it was for self defense and hunting. Note that regulations of guns in the beginning of the US was common and agreed to by a number of the founders. So basically the USSC says the founders forbid that which they did in contemporaneous times.
Always interesting to watch the differences between what the US espouses versus what it actually does.
Since no one bothered to answer this question, I will try one more time.
If the founders were looking to arm the populace, why was "a well regulated militia" even mentioned in the 2nd?
They were guaranteeing people who joined a militia the right to bear arms, not the general population.
So let us now hear your answers to this question.
You know, you really ought to read the thread before making silly assertions like that. You'll wind up embarrassing yourself, inevitably, but not as badly as you just did.
Quote:
I will try one more time.
If the founders were looking to arm the populace, why was "a well regulated militia" even mentioned in the 2nd?
Well regulated means some regulation is needed to have a militia which is in good working order.
That means you cannot allow:
- Criminals
(patiently) It doesn't mean that.
Quote:
- Children
It doesn't mean that, it's up to the individual state.
Quote:
- Mentally ill
It doesn't mean that. It's up to the individual state.
Quote:
- Drunkards and junkies
It doesn't mean that.
Quote:
- People who are physically unable to operate firearms
It doesn't mean that. Or are small, frail cooks and uniform-sewers suddenly not allowed in militias?
Hmm, let's see.
0 for 5.
That's about average for a liberal trying to tell normal people about guns, militias etc.
BTW, have you noticed that the 2nd amendment's ban on government restricting or forbidding the people's right to KBA, is not dependent on whether the individual is in a militia at all, and not even on what a militia is or whether it's well regulated?
I will let you people dance around the question I asked, because you have no answer.
Didn't even read the thread, did we?
(hint: See page 9)
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