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Old 09-03-2010, 06:26 PM
 
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I have a question perhaps someone could answer... If someone bought a property three years ago that had HOA and a mortgage for investment purposes... and deducted them from their taxes the last three years but sells the house for the same value they bought it for to a family member... is that okay?
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Old 09-03-2010, 06:58 PM
 
Location: Colorado Springs, CO
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Why wouldn't it be oK?
I'm not a CPA but I understand the sale would be subject to capital gains which may mean a recapture of the depreciated amount.
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Old 09-03-2010, 07:06 PM
 
Location: NJ
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What do you mean when you say "for investment purposes"? was the house rented out?
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Old 09-03-2010, 07:27 PM
 
Location: DFW
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What Michele said above if it was a true investment and you depreciated it on your taxes. I assume You did not live in the house ?

You can sell the house for any amount to anyone. If they are getting a loan it usually needs to appraise for the sales price and that may be difficult in todays market.

Make sure there is nothing fraudulent in what your doing.
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Old 09-03-2010, 09:16 PM
 
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It was rented out... but the owner did not take depreciation costs... which I understand is okay to avoid recapture taxes...
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Old 09-03-2010, 09:29 PM
 
Location: Cary, NC
43,292 posts, read 77,115,925 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by evilnewbie View Post
It was rented out... but the owner did not take depreciation costs... which I understand is okay to avoid recapture taxes...
Tax Accountant time?
I am under the impression that depreciation for taxes is a requirement on investment property.
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Old 09-03-2010, 09:46 PM
 
1,465 posts, read 5,147,223 times
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Yes, I do believe Mike J is right. Whether you depreciated it or not, the IRS assumes you did.
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