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Old 08-04-2010, 01:38 PM
 
Location: Prattville, Alabama
4,883 posts, read 6,185,878 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk View Post
Here a a couple:

"Matthew composed the sayings in the Hebrew language and everyone interpreted as he was able." Papias (60-130)

"Now Matthew brought forth among the Hebrews a written gospel in their language, while Peter and Paul were preaching in Rome and founding the church." Irenaeus (130-200)

"Among the four Gospels, which are the only indisputable ones in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a tax collector, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, and it was prepared for the converts from Judaism, and published in the Hebrew [or Aramaic] language." Origen (185-254)

"For Matthew, who had at first preached to the Hebrews, when he was about to go to other peoples, committed his Gospel to writing in his native tongue, and thus compensated those whom he was obliged to leave for the loss of his presence" Eusebius
I suggest you actually take some time and study what you are positing...because it's already been PROVEN that both the book of Matthew and Luke came from the same Mark source. You're just spouting what you've been taught and your lack of real education in this area shows.
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Old 08-04-2010, 01:51 PM
 
Location: Valencia, Spain
16,155 posts, read 12,799,268 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk View Post
He writes of his conversion to Christianity by meeting Jesus Christ in person on the way to Damascus to route out the Christians there.
Wrong...yet again. There isn't a single instance in all of Paul's writings that he ever meets or sees an earthly Jesus, neither does he give any reference to Jesus' (alleged) life on earth.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk View Post
"Among the four Gospels, which are the only indisputable ones in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a tax collector,
If Matthew was a witness to Jesus, why does he write in the 'third person' as in...

"...And as Jesus passed forth thence, he saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto him (Matthew), follow me and he (Matthew) arose, and followed him." (Matthew 9:9)

Why didn't he write, as an eye witness...

"And as Jesus passed forth thence, he saw me sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto me, follow me and I arose, and followed him."

Because it was not written by Matthew...that's why.

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Old 08-04-2010, 03:14 PM
 
Location: PA
2,595 posts, read 4,429,685 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ChristyGrl View Post
I suggest you actually take some time and study what you are positing...because it's already been PROVEN that both the book of Matthew and Luke came from the same Mark source. You're just spouting what you've been taught and your lack of real education in this area shows.
It has not been proven.
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:17 PM
 
Location: New York City
5,553 posts, read 7,975,533 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rafius View Post
Wrong...yet again. There isn't a single instance in all of Paul's writings that he ever meets or sees an earthly Jesus, neither does he give any reference to Jesus' (alleged) life on earth.


If Matthew was a witness to Jesus, why does he write in the 'third person' as in...

"...And as Jesus passed forth thence, he saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto him (Matthew), follow me and he (Matthew) arose, and followed him." (Matthew 9:9)

Why didn't he write, as an eye witness...

"And as Jesus passed forth thence, he saw me sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto me, follow me and I arose, and followed him."

Because it was not written by Matthew...that's why.
You can add John 21:24 into the mix too:

This is the disciple who testifies of these things, and wrote these things; and we know that his testimony is true.

Who exactly is WE and why are THEY saying HIS testimony is true? If John wrote the book, why would he refer to "we" when it should just have been "me?" Um...maybe because John the Disciple didn't write a damn thing and someone was just using his name or, to be fair, someone else wrote it for him?
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:19 PM
 
Location: New York City
5,553 posts, read 7,975,533 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk View Post
It has not been proven.
You gotta be kidding, right? Even my kids could read Matthew and Mark and see that they are almost identical word for word with some key differences by the latter (Matthew) to correct Mark or to add his own little incredulous accounts that bend reality.
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:21 PM
 
16,294 posts, read 28,435,199 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by InsaneInDaMembrane View Post
You gotta be kidding, right? Even my kids could read Matthew and Mark and see that they are almost identical word for word with some key differences by the latter (Matthew) to correct Mark or to add his own little incredulous accounts that bend reality.
Plagiarism
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:25 PM
 
Location: Mississippi
180 posts, read 216,411 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Asheville Native View Post
Plagiarism
Plagarism in the bible , no way!
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:40 PM
 
Location: Prattville, Alabama
4,883 posts, read 6,185,878 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk View Post
It has not been proven.
I guess you know more than all the scholars who have proven this.

You can lead the sheeple to water....but you can't make em drink.
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:45 PM
 
Location: Victoria, BC.
33,498 posts, read 36,996,891 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ChristyGrl View Post
I guess you know more than all the scholars who have proven this.

You can lead the sheeple to water....but you can't make em drink.
Uhhhh, shouldn't that last word be "think"?
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Old 08-04-2010, 03:53 PM
 
Location: Prattville, Alabama
4,883 posts, read 6,185,878 times
Reputation: 821
Quote:
Originally Posted by sanspeur View Post
Uhhhh, shouldn't that last word be "think"?
Yeah...they won't do that either....but mine is more poetic and makes much better sense...don't ya think?
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