Since we are on the issue of gay marriage, a few questions (genesis, prophecy)
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Okay, so we all know the scriptures. Here are my questions. In the bible, it basically implies the act of homosexual sex is a sin. A bad one.
So, what if a person is attracted to someone of the same sex but never ever has sex, are they still committing sin? If not, at what point, does one cross the line?
You know what, the bible is hearsay stories by men and we believe they are gospel. If it says somewhere that man should't lay with man then obviously they did or it wouldn't be an issue.
Ummm...there is a lot of stuff in the Bible we can take for any purpose...as many do. I think Jesus said something about not judging others.....and love one another. That no one is without sin.
Acceptance is also taught in the Bible....are we all reading the same book?!
Here's the truth. Homosexuality is not a sin. It's normal and natural and is a good and moral thing.
But wasn't rampant homosexuality in Sodom and Gomorrah a major reason why God destroyed those towns as well as the major reason why homosexuals are so hated to this day? Maybe a major problem is that today's people have not forgiven homosexuals for their behavior from the distant past.
Okay, so we all know the scriptures. Here are my questions. In the bible, it basically implies the act of homosexual sex is a sin. A bad one.
So, what if a person is attracted to someone of the same sex but never ever has sex, are they still committing sin? If not, at what point, does one cross the line?
Thoughts are not sin. Feelings are not sin. One can be angry but it's not sinful unless you retaliate in some harmful way against the other person. Of course, if you dwell on bad feelings that can be bad since it can lead to actions.
For something that is about the same, one can be attracted to a married person but if not acted on, it's not a sin.
Jesus would certainly tell you to act upon your feelings, so no it is not a sin, in fact homosexuality is not a sin either. Jesus is totally cool with it.
Okay, so we all know the scriptures. Here are my questions. In the bible, it basically implies the act of homosexual sex is a sin. A bad one.
No it's not. Try learning the meaning of the Bible verses you think are referring to gay people. They don't mean in Hebrew and Greek what they mean in English.
But it does pertain to the question presented here.
This question should be in the religious forum, not politics. The OP, however, is another person who refuses to learn his misguided understanding of the Bible and will never listen to other explanations.
You know what, the bible is hearsay stories by men and we believe they are gospel. If it says somewhere that man should't lay with man then obviously they did or it wouldn't be an issue.
But wasn't rampant homosexuality in Sodom and Gomorrah a major reason why God destroyed those towns as well as the major reason why homosexuals are so hated to this day?
No. There is no mention of homosexuality in Sodom. The word Sodom and the word Sodomy are not linguistically related. That's a much later corruption of Latin.
Sodom was destroyed for inhospitality to strangers ( a very serious offense in that culture). There was also attempted rape in Sodom, which most people think was committed by gay people but that's highly improbably because 1) Statistically, almost the entire town would have been heterosexual, 2) Raping innocents in towns that were being pillaged is an extremely common thing, especially in those days and had nothing to do with sex, 3) Angels are not men, nor is the raping of men the orientation of homosexuality, and 4) Judges 19 proves Sodom has nothing to do with gays.
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Maybe a major problem is that today's people have not forgiven homosexuals for their behavior from the distant past.
Or maybe today's people are too stupid to know what a homosexual is?
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