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I think if you maliciously do not do something to stop their suffering, then yes, it is probably a sin. However, if you do not have the means to stop their suffering, then no, I don't think so. This is one of those "heart" issues.
Even if it is someone you hold contempt for, the "Christ like" and MORAL thing to do would be to help them in any way you can. I don't think God would see to kindly to someone that would knowingly ignore the suffering of one of His creations (whether human OR animal...but in this case, especially human). But God would be much pleased if someone was to put their differences aside to help their fellow person.
If I knowingly allow another to suffer is it morally equivalent to causing their suffering?
If I know someone is starving and fail to direct my efforts to feeding them; have I effectively “stolen food from their mouth”?
clearly no. if moral law reflects real law.
if i fail to help a driver stalled on road the penalty is far less than if i hit him in the head with a tire iron.
stephen s
san diego ca
If I knowingly allow another to suffer is it morally equivalent to causing their suffering?
Not unless you have actually caused the suffering. Keeping someone alive against their wishes could be seen as torture.
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If I know someone is starving and fail to direct my efforts to feeding them; have I effectively “stolen food from their mouth”?
Not unless you actually steal their food, but since they were starving they could not have food.
Only when you prevent those who are starving to grow their own food or prevent food from reaching them, are you stealing food from their mouth.
One of the biggest sin of omission that we face today, is that one where we see a person, usually a child, being abused and do nothing. We seldom know what is the right thing to do. We fear making things worse. We don't like to interfer. So we do nothing. Circumstances are so complex sometimes that the Sins of Omission are unavoidable.
Should a Christian be obliged to sell all their earthly possessions to feed the hungry?
No. This is not standard practice, nor is it a commandment in the Bible. Some people feel that God leads them to sell possessions so they can contribute to charity, but that is a personal thing between them and God.
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Originally Posted by satanoid
Is it moral for Christians to own big screen TVs? Cars?
I don't have a problem with it as long as those things do not hinder their walk with God. Do they still pay their tithes? Or did they use that money to buy the big screen? That would be a problem.
I don't see owning a car as an extravagant luxury.
A sin of omission I would consider would be the Christian person who has the vast knowledge of the Bible and love of the Lord but does not share the gospel with others who are seeking the Lord.
If I knowingly allow another to suffer is it morally equivalent to causing their suffering?
If I know someone is starving and fail to direct my efforts to feeding them; have I effectively “stolen food from their mouth”?
Luke 14:13 "But when you give a banquet, invite the poor, the crippled, the lame, the blind,"
Matthew 25:34 "Then the King will say to those on his right, 'Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world. 35For I was hungry and you gave me something to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me something to drink, I was a stranger and you invited me in, 36I needed clothes and you clothed me, I was sick and you looked after me, I was in prison and you came to visit me.'
37"Then the righteous will answer him, 'Lord, when did we see you hungry and feed you, or thirsty and give you something to drink? 38When did we see you a stranger and invite you in, or needing clothes and clothe you? 39When did we see you sick or in prison and go to visit you?'
40"The King will reply, 'I tell you the truth, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers of mine, you did for me.'
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