Why is there such a lack of morals in western society?

[Griffis]

Originally Posted by tvdxer

Existence does not imply acceptance. Contraception was widely disdained in 19th-century America, and only in the mid-20th century did most Christian churches change their view on it.

And prior to the puritanical, small-minded Protestant Western church view, contraception was an accepted and endorsed fact of life for milennia around much of the globe.

Sodomy has been viewed as immoral since the Christianization of the West.

You should ruminate on the last half of your sentence here. There was a big, wide world full of countless centuries of history and a multitude of cultures that existed before (and during, and after) the Christianization of the West. Christianity has no claim on morality. In fact, the very "Christianization of the West" involved a great deal of slaughter, torture and genocide. I'm not saying these kinds of atrocities are intrinsic to Christianity alone, or that the spread of Christianity didn't also result in remarkable achievements and advancements in philosophy and the arts--rather they are and always have been a part of the human condition.

In some cultures, sodomy was an accepted sexual practice; in others it may well have been frowned upon.

There is nothing inherently "immoral" about the act of sodomy, or of homosexuality, etc. between consenting adults. It may not be to your taste, but it is ridiculous and myopic to claim that biblical discussions on the subject are the be-all and end-all and final word on what is or isn't immoral. That's baseless nonsense.

Humans are diverse in nature. For a long time in some cultures it was considered "wrong" or "evil" to be left-handed. Even some Christian sects held this to be true. Left-handedness is a deviation from the norm. Some have called it an aberration. It is no more so, and no more intrinsically "immoral" than is homosexuality.

Contraception is immoral because it selfishly separates the procreative and unitive aspects of sex, leading to a variety of social ills.

Homosexual acts are immoral because they are against the natural end of the sexual act.

Nothing here has any weight or validity whatsoever. This is merely your biases, opinions and bigotry on display; nothing more.

[Gaylenwoof]

Originally Posted by tvdxer

Contraception is immoral because it selfishly separates the procreative and unitive aspects of sex....

Just curious: If a man and a woman are married, but they know that they are naturally infertile, is it immoral for them to have sex? Since they know they are infertile, the only reason they would have sex is for the pleasure and/or "unitive" aspect of sex. Along similar lines, is it immoral for a husband and wife to engage in mutual masturbation, since this would clearly be for the purposes of pleasure, not for procreation.