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It has been estimated that human like beings have existed on planet Earth at least 100,000 years. If God is so offended by sin by human beings, then why in the year 0AD did God decide that it was finally time to "deal" with this sin by offering up a Savior strung up on a cross? God thought blood sacrifices of animals were OK but then changed his mind? Christians please explain the logic behind this.
Numerology: 100,000 is the perfect amount of years to send himself as his son and savior of humanity
Semantics: human-like is not human, numbers are irrelevant, "God" knows why.
I'm stuck there for now, I'm sure there is a greater variety of discernible possibilities within the general idea.
Numerology: 100,000 is the perfect amount of years to send himself as his son and savior of humanity
Semantics: human-like is not human, numbers are irrelevant, "God" knows why.
I'm stuck there for now, I'm sure there is a greater variety of discernible possibilities within the general idea.
Just for fun, your question assumes that "sin" existed since humans did (and the time period for humans is probably much longer) but that is not a given. The concept of innocence or a state of grace would enter the picture and then the position of "the Fall." Some calculate this event to have been 6,000 years ago and others posit the beginning of the agricultural revolution or about 10,000 years ago.
THEN comes the question of "saved from what?" but let's save that for later.
why didn't God Appeared to the Sumerians who can read and right by 4000BC?, why not the Indus valley people, the Chinese, ect ad other people who can read and write, build cities, having running water, etc. he had to appeared to a primitive tribe of people
why didn't God Appeared to the Sumerians who can read and right by 4000BC?, why not the Indus valley people, the Chinese, ect ad other people who can read and write, build cities, having running water, etc. he had to appeared to a primitive tribe of people
why didn't God Appeared to the Sumerians who can read and right by 4000BC?, why not the Indus valley people, the Chinese, ect ad other people who can read and write, build cities, having running water, etc. he had to appeared to a primitive tribe of people
The least will be first (except for God)?
A "God" did appear to various Sumerians, usually supporting specific groups of people or cities that eventually had to unite under polytheism because their gods were so different.
There was tons of communication, I think that was the problem against homogeneity. Various contradicting ideas going around, even about the very same idolized person.
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