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I started with the kjv over 50 years ago as well, nice to see another who has love for God for that long a period. I will pray you will endure till the end Ella Parr.( Matt 10:22)
Thank you, KJW. 50 years ago, did they have anything but the KJV??? Not here in the deep south!!!! Do you still use it? Or another version?
50 years is a long time to love God, to be devoted, to read and study. Where does 50 years go??? It has been like a craving for me. The more I learn, the more I want to learn. The closer I get to God, the closer I want to get. (Of course, that thing about looming death as I age might have something to do with it. )
I, too, pray you will endure till the end.
I think after 50 years, we're going to make it!! I think you and I are a lot like God's old slippers - we are very comfortable with him and He is comfortable with us. (Besides, I'm too old to commit to many sins anymore!!! LOL)
Last edited by Ella Parr; 09-07-2015 at 06:56 PM..
The KJV says God made Moses "lord" over Pharaoh. "lord" was simple a title of respect for a person who was above another. God made Moses a figure of higher status - that was because Moses (through God and with God's help) was going to smite Pharaoh. That makes Moses a "lord" - a man of higher status - over Pharaoh.
HI,
No the KJV says jehovah God/LORD made Moses "god" to Pharaoh.
KJV Exodus 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.
The use of "a" as in "a god" is sloppy translating, but they knew elohim means G/god.
I have used the KJV for nearly 60 years.
Here is some information on this use of the senders name for the spokesman.
SHALIACH is a Hebrew word. Its potential meaning is "an emissary, an ambassador, an apostle, a messenger, or a sent forth one." The term is commonly used by NT scholars to describe the mission of Jesus, his being sent forth by the Father. The SHALIACH principle is that "the one sent is subordinate to the one who sent him."
"The New Testament apostles were apostles of Jesus, and Jesus was an apostle of God. It is against this background that Jesus, in the same context, could say both, 'He who has seen me has seen the Father' (John 14:9) and 'The Father is greater than I' (John 14:28). Cf. P. Borgen, "God Agent in the Fourth Gospel" in Religions in Antiquity (Ed. J
the Schaliach Principle, or the Jewish Law of Agency, which is expressed in the dictum, 'A person’s agent is regarded as the person himself.'" (1967 The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion. Werblowsky, Raphael Jehudah Zwi; Wigoder, Geoffrey, joint editors)
The NIV study Bible points out: "in the language of the OT—and in accordance with the conceptual world of the ancient Near East—rulers and judges, as deputies of the heavenly King, could be given the honorific title ‘god’ (see note on 45:6; see also NIV text notes on Ex 21:6; 22:8) or be called ‘son of God’.."
Professor of NT interpretation at Fuller Seminary Marrianne Thompson also noted:
…when the word ‘god’ is used with reference to some figure other than the Most High God, it is typically because of the powers and authority delegated to that individual [compare Matt. 28:19]. The argument of the Fourth Gospel is that the distinctive divine prerogatives of creation and sovereignty have been delegated and are being exercised by Jesus, that the conferring of these prerogatives upon Jesus rests on the relationship of the Father and the Son, and that therefore the Son may be known as ‘God.’
No the KJV says jehovah God/LORD made Moses "god" to Pharaoh.
KJV Exodus 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.
The use of "a" as in "a god" is sloppy translating, but they knew elohim means G/god.
I have used the KJV for nearly 60 years.
Here is some information on this use of the senders name for the spokesman.
SHALIACH is a Hebrew word. Its potential meaning is "an emissary, an ambassador, an apostle, a messenger, or a sent forth one." The term is commonly used by NT scholars to describe the mission of Jesus, his being sent forth by the Father. The SHALIACH principle is that "the one sent is subordinate to the one who sent him."
"The New Testament apostles were apostles of Jesus, and Jesus was an apostle of God. It is against this background that Jesus, in the same context, could say both, 'He who has seen me has seen the Father' (John 14:9) and 'The Father is greater than I' (John 14:28). Cf. P. Borgen, "God Agent in the Fourth Gospel" in Religions in Antiquity (Ed. J
the Schaliach Principle, or the Jewish Law of Agency, which is expressed in the dictum, 'A person’s agent is regarded as the person himself.'" (1967 The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion. Werblowsky, Raphael Jehudah Zwi; Wigoder, Geoffrey, joint editors)
The NIV study Bible points out: "in the language of the OT—and in accordance with the conceptual world of the ancient Near East—rulers and judges, as deputies of the heavenly King, could be given the honorific title ‘god’ (see note on 45:6; see also NIV text notes on Ex 21:6; 22:8) or be called ‘son of God’.."
Professor of NT interpretation at Fuller Seminary Marrianne Thompson also noted:
…when the word ‘god’ is used with reference to some figure other than the Most High God, it is typically because of the powers and authority delegated to that individual [compare Matt. 28:19]. The argument of the Fourth Gospel is that the distinctive divine prerogatives of creation and sovereignty have been delegated and are being exercised by Jesus, that the conferring of these prerogatives upon Jesus rests on the relationship of the Father and the Son, and that therefore the Son may be known as ‘God.’
Elohim is a grammatically singular or plural noun for "god" or "gods" in both modern and Biblical Hebrew. Despite the-im ending common to many plural masculine nouns in Hebrew, the word is grammatically singular, and takes a singular verb in the Hebrew Bible when referring to God. When used with singular verbs and adjectives elohim is usually singular, "god" or especially, the God. - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim
The word is identical to the usual plural of el meaning gods or magistrates, and is cognate to the 'l-h-m found in Ugaritic, where it is used for the pantheon of Canaanite gods, the children of El and conventionally vocalized as "Elohim". Most use of the term Elohim in the later Hebrew text imply a view that is at least monolatrist at the time of writing, and such usage (in the singular), as a proper title for the supreme deity, is generally not considered to be synonymous with the term elohim, "gods" (plural, simple noun). Hebrew grammar allows for this nominally-plural form to mean "He is the Power (singular) over powers (plural)", or roughly, "God of gods". Rabbinic scholar Maimonides wrote that the various other usages are commonly understood to be homonyms. - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim
Here again, you are giving me the Hebrew. I don't understand Hebrew. I am dealing with English. I am not dealing with "Elohim", "Adonai" or "Moshe". I am dealing with the English translation - good, bad, or indifferent. I do understand what you are saying. I understand that Moshe (Moses) was given the "power" over Pharaoh. That is in no way contradictory to 7:1 The words are different, but the meaning is the same.
It is important to understand because in the KJV, they translate the same Hebrew word differently throughout their COT...
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Yes, I understand what you are saying here and I don't disagree - exactly. I think you are splitting a hair that doesn't need to be split. This area was filled with people that would be called Hebrews/Jews. If Jacob was a Hebrew and Abraham was Hebrew the direct lineage back to Adam would make him a Hebrew, too. Again, the names and designations changed. That is a Jewish thing I don't really understand. The KJV Bible does not explain this. The terms just showed up.
Avraham was a Hebrew, Isaac was a Hebrew, Israel was an Israelite, the term Jew came along way later...Actually, Ishmael was also a Hebrew...
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Of course, there were no Israelites until Jacob became Israel. Another name change. At least it is explained. I never said that Adam was an Israelite; he wasn't.
These people looked like Hebrews/Jews, they were colored like Hebrews/Jews, they had the physical points of Hebrews/Jews. No matter what Adam or any other people in the immediate area were called, they were Hebrews/Jews. According to the KJV, retrospectively.
Hebrew and Jew are not synonymous...Israelites come from the Northern Kingdom Jews come from the Southern Kingdom...
Quote:
Your name was Richard because it was not translated into the native language of the country. In Puerto Rico, my name translates to Elena (and into Tia Gringa for the children and Titi for short). It is just like Moshe; translated into English, it becomes Moses.
My name was Richard because that is what my BC says...
Quote:
You may translate God's name as you choose. In English it is translated into Jehovah.
Just letting you know what His true Name is, that's all...
Quote:
At this point, that is of no consequence to me. It is only of consequence to the reasons we, in English, call Jehovah "Lord" and "God", which happened thousands of years ago. It matters that "lord" is not "Lord" or "God" and has a totally different meaning; that makes a big difference in understanding the KJV Bible. The point is to read what is actually there and apply the proper meaning.
However, it is not the anglicized version of His Name, it is a corruption of the German attempt at it...That's common knowledge...
Is your name Ella?...If you moved to Germany, what would it be?...France, What would it be?...You know where I am going with this...The name you were given is your name no matter where you live in this world or move to...It does not change...When I lived in Germany, my name was Richard, in Italy it was Richard, in Spain it was Richard, in France it was Richard...And if I move to China it would still be Richard...Same with G-d, His Name is what it is and it is not Jehovah, Yehova, Yehowah, Yahweh, or Yahveh...it is ,יהוה , (Yehwa or Yehua)...
many hundred years before Islam most Jews and Christians in Arabia called God by the name Allah
let alone the current arab Jews and the current arab Christians.
The name of the creator is Allah in all the language.
Jesus used the name Allah and used Elahi (my god)
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Not here in the deep south!!!! Do you still use it? Or another version? 
)
