Quote:
Originally Posted by thrillobyte
I read this verse over on the Christianity forum just now
Immediately Jesus knew in his spirit that this was what they were thinking in their hearts, and he said to them, “Why are you thinking these things? Which is easier: to say to this paralyzed man, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up, take your mat and walk’?
(Mark 2:8-9)
and for the first time after reading this hundreds of times the question stuck me:
"How did the anonymous writer of Mark, writing in Greece 50 years after Jesus' crucifixion, KNOW what Jesus was knowing/feeling in his spirit when the Pharisees were questioning him? Who told the anonymous writer this very private fact? There's no way he could have knowledge of this so he had to be making the entire thing up---from his imagination. And if he made up that part of the gospel what would stop him from making the whole gospel up?????? 
The evidence against the gospels being genuine just keeps adding up. |
And what is more, Matthew says the same thing
Matthew 9. 3 And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth.
4 And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?
5 For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?
So this is also plagiarism, as well as plagiarism of a thing that no eyewitness could have known. In addition to which - it taxes place at different times. In Mark, it is long before Jesus sails to Gadara, but in Matthew it is directly after he comes back from Gadara.
Luke also has this.
Luke 5. 20 And when he saw their faith, he said unto him, Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.
21 And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason, saying, Who is this which speaketh blasphemies? Who can forgive sins, but God alone?
22 But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, he answering said unto them, What reason ye in your hearts?
23 Whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Rise up and walk?
Note that Luke is a bit smarter, having the Pharisees mutter out loud, so the problem of how Jesus knew what they were thinking and the writer knew what Jesus was thinking is overcome by rewriting the Bible - which Luke often does. Incidentally, Luke reflects the original order of events (as does Mark) and NOT Matthew's - it's before Gadara, not after - and this is another clue that Luke did Not copy his gospel from Matthew.
And finally...
John 5. Some time later, Jesus went up to Jerusalem for one of the Jewish festivals. 2 Now there is in Jerusalem near the Sheep Gate a pool, which in Aramaic is called Bethesda[a] and which is surrounded by five covered colonnades. 3 Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. [4] [b] 5 One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years. 6 When Jesus saw him lying there and learned that he had been in this condition for a long time, he asked him, “Do you want to get well?”
7 “Sir,” the invalid replied, “I have no one to help me into the pool when the water is stirred. While I am trying to get in, someone else goes down ahead of me.”
8 Then Jesus said to him, “Get up! Pick up your mat and walk.” 9 At once the man was cured; he picked up his mat and walked.
Now i know that the claim can be made that Jesus could use the same formula for any such healing, but just odd that this happens in Jerusalem but the one in Galilee is missed, while the synoptics report ...sorry..
Copy...the one in Galilee but ignore the one in Jerusalem.
I's sugest that we use the Omegius explanation - lowest common denominator. '
On one occasion, Jesus said to a paralyzed man: “Rise! Pick up your mat and walk.” And he rose and pickethed up his mat and walkethed.' simple miracle claim, which Was popped into the Synoptic original Gospel (proto -Mark) in Galilee, with some screenplay involving Pharisees requiring a crystal ball which Luke tidies up and John put it in Jerusalem. With a wrangle with the Pharisees, true, but a totally different one. Easy.
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