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russiaonline, please provide the thread with actual links and solid, factual support to back up your claims (as dunno what to put here as done). Otherwise, we can only take your statements and claims merely as your own opinions, rather than as actual facts.
russiaonline, please provide the thread with actual links and solid, factual support to back up your claims (as dunno what to put here as done). Otherwise, we can only take your statements and claims merely as your own opinions, rather than as actual facts.
I hope moderators forgive us... Plus, it's not really off-topic.
According to a sample survey organizations in April 2011. median of the distribution of employees by salary (50% of employees have salaries less than this value and 50% of workers - more) -16 043 rubles. Average salary in the Russian Federation in April 2011. exceeded the median wage by 39%.
So the median salary is 28,000 rubles, or 688 euros vs 498 in Estonia. Well, not twice higher - "only" 40%. But that's salaries, not incomes - Russian incomes are hard to estimate (lets not test the moderator's patience ), and they are higher than salaries, of course.
Compared to other new Member States of the EU, Estonia is quite an expensive country.
Monthly utilities (gas, electricity, water) for a 2-room flat are on average EUR 160
PPP doesn't correctly measure cost of living. Especially in countries like Russia - which has a very different economy than what you are used to. Just reread my post with a photo for a very easy to understand hint - and that's just the tip of an iceberg.
Quote:
I think you have a very misguided view of Russia and everything not Russian or aligned with Russia (such as the European Union, and the Baltic states). I knew Russians were gullible, but this is ridiculous.
Don't blame me for you not understanding economics
Am I correct to assume that measuring how developed a country is depends on what and how you are measuring it? Or is there a standard that is accepted by most economists?
Am I correct to assume that measuring how developed a country is depends on what and how you are measuring it? Or is there a standard that is accepted by most economists?
Developed/developing is a very subjective measure. Most economists use metrics that measure how "Western" the country's economy is - creating arbitrary and totally subjective thresholds. Coincidentally, most (published) economists live in countries that score the most
The closest one is S Korea. Goldman Sachs is planning to move it officially from emerging economies to developed economy next year. The country already has a per capita GDP exceeding Portugal in nominal terms. In PPP terms, it is already higher than Italy, Spain, New Zealand and getting close to Japan, France and the UK.
South Korea already crossed the gate to the first world since many years.
If a country with a higher GDP per capita than many already developed countries, without significative social issues and strong in high tech and human capital, cannot still be included in the first world... then first world means nothing.
To me semi-developed sounds like a country who's major cities are pretty much fully developed and equal to developed world standards, but once you enter the rural areas and small cities it's still developing.
Not sure which country this best describes, but I imagine that this applies to many developing countries.
I've actually been wondering the same thing for quite some time.
Does anybody know why it's like that?
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