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Old 05-18-2010, 08:37 PM
 
450 posts, read 5,022,265 times
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My husband and I are first-time homebuyers. My husband is the income-earner and right now I have no income so my husband's name is the only one on the mortgage application/documents.

Now our lender informed us that his name is the only one that can be on the contract too.

Is this really true? Does that mean I have no legal rights to this house, even though we are married?
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Old 05-18-2010, 08:47 PM
 
3,164 posts, read 6,951,679 times
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You can have your name on the title to the house. You can also have it on the mortgage application, assuming your credit rating is a good one. My husband is the only wage earner in our family and I've been on three mortgage applications, and three house deeds. Have the documents redone and include your name on everything.
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Old 05-18-2010, 09:09 PM
 
450 posts, read 5,022,265 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Denton56 View Post
You can have your name on the title to the house. You can also have it on the mortgage application, assuming your credit rating is a good one. My husband is the only wage earner in our family and I've been on three mortgage applications, and three house deeds. Have the documents redone and include your name on everything.
Well the reason I wasn't on the mortgage application is b/c it was simpler to just have my husband's income and credit for the application, rather than me having to provide all sorts of documents too, when I don't have any income to contribute to the mortgage. So to re-do the documents at this point would probably be a bad idea.

I was also told that b/c I am not on the mortgage documents, I can't be on the title either.

So I was told I can't have my name on the title or the contract, and I feel like I don't have any legal rights to this house, which makes me feel sad.
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Old 05-18-2010, 09:15 PM
 
Location: Northwestern VA
982 posts, read 3,486,911 times
Reputation: 569
Unless there's some kind of law in your state that prevents your hubby from being on the contract, he is allowed to do it without being on the loan.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Bass101 View Post
My husband and I are first-time homebuyers. My husband is the income-earner and right now I have no income so my husband's name is the only one on the mortgage application/documents.

Now our lender informed us that his name is the only one that can be on the contract too.

Is this really true? Does that mean I have no legal rights to this house, even though we are married?
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Old 05-19-2010, 01:09 AM
 
Location: Orlando Florida
370 posts, read 1,068,486 times
Reputation: 95
Default community property

In States like Washington the acquistions during the marriage is considered owned by both.
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Old 05-19-2010, 06:09 AM
 
Location: Palm Coast, Fl
2,249 posts, read 8,897,149 times
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Who told you that? The title company?
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Old 05-19-2010, 07:06 AM
 
Location: NJ
17,573 posts, read 46,141,127 times
Reputation: 16279
For both houses I bought in NJ my name was the only one on the mortgage documents, but my spouse's name was on everything else along with mine.

I was also informed it didn't mean squat in NJ whose name was on what when if it came time to split things up in a divorce.
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Old 05-19-2010, 07:44 AM
 
450 posts, read 5,022,265 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by palmcoasting View Post
Who told you that? The title company?
The lender
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Old 05-19-2010, 08:13 AM
 
Location: Austin
7,244 posts, read 21,808,870 times
Reputation: 10015
If you live in a community property state, it doesn't matter.
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Old 05-19-2010, 08:26 AM
 
Location: Tempe, Arizona
4,511 posts, read 13,580,010 times
Reputation: 2201
We are a community property state. Lenders here require the spouse not on the contract & mortgage application to file a quit claim deed to the other spouse.

I'd recommend that you go ahead and update the mortgage application if you want to retain rights to the home. Check with an attorney to see if you have other options.
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