Please register to participate in our discussions with 2 million other members - it's free and quick! Some forums can only be seen by registered members. After you create your account, you'll be able to customize options and access all our 15,000 new posts/day with fewer ads.
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
I believe David's Lord (YHWH) is the Christ himself, the Son of the Invisible God Father - the Spirit of Love - whose name is NOT yet been revealed to anyone at this time.
But of course the above analogy is most likely contrary to the traditional belief and based on my understanding of the Scripture.
Any objection, please support your religious views with Scripture.
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
I believe David's Lord (YHWH) is the Christ himself, the Son of the Invisible God Father - the Spirit of Love - whose name is NOT yet been revealed to anyone at this time.
But of course the above analogy is most likely contrary to the traditional belief and based on my understanding of the Scripture.
Any objection, please support your religious views with Scripture.
God Bless
RESPONSE:
Probably not. Just another of Matthew's attempts to create "fulfilled" prophecies.
From the New American Bible's footnote:
"The psalm was probably composed for the enthronement of a Davidic king of Judah. Matthew assumes that the Pharisees interpret it as referring to the Messiah, although there is no clear evidence that it was so interpreted in the Judaism of Jesus' time. It was widely used in the early church as referring to the exaltation of the risen Jesus. My lord: understood as the Messiah."
Actually, the term "Lord" in the Old Testament can refer to any king.
Probably not. Just another of Matthew's attempts to create "fulfilled" prophecies.
From the New American Bible's footnote:
"The psalm was probably composed for the enthronement of a Davidic king of Judah. Matthew assumes that the Pharisees interpret it as referring to the Messiah, although there is no clear evidence that it was so interpreted in the Judaism of Jesus' time. It was widely used in the early church as referring to the exaltation of the risen Jesus. My lord: understood as the Messiah."
Actually, the term "Lord" in the Old Testament can refer to any king.
Is that right? Then, who do you think was David's Lord in the Old Testament - being referred in the cited text below...?
Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my (David's) Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Matthew gives the genealogical proof that Jesus was son of David, and Jesus says that David called him his Lord before Jesus was born. Therefore Jesus was not only David's son (bloodline), but he was THE son, who they had been waiting for as their Messiah = God.
Whose Son is David's Lord (YHWH) of the Old Testament?
Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my (David's) Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Matthews 22:45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? v46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
Actually, the term "Lord" in the Old Testament can refer to any king.
It's true that the Hebrew term ādôn (a masculine noun meaning lord or master) can mean any king, but not for David. David had no earthly kings, lords or masters that ruled over him.
David's lord and master (ādôn) was none other than Jehovah (yehōwāh: A noun meaning God). Here is where David tells us so:
Psa 8:1 To the chief musician, on the harp. A Psalm of David. O Jehovah (yehōwāh), our Lord (ādôn), how majestic is Your name in all the earth; You have set Your glory above the heavens!
The religious leaders of Jesus' day understood that Psalms 110 was messianic and had reference to the Messiah. That is what Jesus was pointing out. That David's lord or master, the Messiah, was in fact Jehovah God.
When Jesus claimed to be the Messiah, He claimed to be Jehovah God. And the Jews understood that claim.
Matthew gives the genealogical proof that Jesus was son of David, and Jesus says that David called him his Lord before Jesus was born. Therefore Jesus was not only David's son (bloodline), but he was THE son, who they had been waiting for as their Messiah = God.
RESPONSE:
Jesus would only be a son of David if Joesph was his biological father.
Is that right? Then, who do you think was David's Lord in the Old Testament - being referred in the cited text below...?
Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my (David's) Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Insertion is mine for clarity of presentation.
RESPONSE:
>>Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my (David's) Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.<<
Please quote scripture correctly without adding "insertions" that are not in the original.
"A psalm of David. The LORD says to you, my lord: "Take your throne at my right hand, while I make your enemies your footstool."
"The LORD says to my lord," is a polite form of address of an inferior to a superior. It occurs elsewhere in the Old Testament.
EXAMPLE: 1 Sam 25:25 “Let not my lord pay attention to that worthless man Nabal, for he is just like his name. Fool is his name, and he acts the fool. I, your handmaid, did not see the young men whom my lord sent"
ANOTHER EXAMPLE: 2 Sam 1:10 “So I stood up to him and dispatched him, for I knew that he could not survive his wound. I removed the crown from his head and the armlet from his arm and brought them here to my lord."
Footnote from the New American Bible:
"Psalm 110] A royal psalm in which a court singer recites three oracles in which God assures the king that his enemies are conquered . Psalm 110:1-2 makes the king "son" in traditional adoption language) (Psalm 110:3 gives priestly status to the king and promises to be with him in future military ventures Psalm 110:4-7"
Last edited by ancient warrior; 11-19-2010 at 10:59 AM..
Reason: Removal of numberous {SIZE} designations.
It's true that the Hebrew term ādôn (a masculine noun meaning lord or master) can mean any king, but not for David. David had no earthly kings, lords or masters that ruled over him.
David's lord and master (ādôn) was none other than Jehovah (yehōwāh: A noun meaning God). Here is where David tells us so:
Psa 8:1 To the chief musician, on the harp. A Psalm of David. O Jehovah (yehōwāh), our Lord (ādôn), how majestic is Your name in all the earth; You have set Your glory above the heavens!
The religious leaders of Jesus' day understood that Psalms 110 was messianic and had reference to the Messiah. That is what Jesus was pointing out. That David's lord or master, the Messiah, was in fact Jehovah God.
When Jesus claimed to be the Messiah, He claimed to be Jehovah God. And the Jews understood that claim.
RESPONSE:
Are you assuming that David actually wrote this psalm and that he was referring to himself?
>>When Jesus claimed to be the Messiah, He claimed to be Jehovah God. And the Jews understood that claim.<<
Only according to John's gosepl written 95 AD or later. The earlier written gospels Matthew, Mark, Luke and the Acts of the Apostles are clear that Jesus was the messiah through whom God, not Jesus, worked signs. Also note, that Jesus is always "raised from the dead" by God [like Lazarus] until we get to John's gospel.
Acts 2:22-24
You who are Israelites, hear these words. Jesus the Nazorean was a man commended to you by God with mighty deeds, wonders, and signs, which God worked through him in your midst, as you yourselves know. This man, delivered up by the set plan and foreknowledge of God, you killed, using lawless men to crucify him. But God raised him up, releasing him from the throes of death.
Note also that Jesus' immediate folowers remained an orthodox Temple worshipping sect within conventunal Juadism which would never have been allowed if they had claimed Jesus was divine.
Last edited by ancient warrior; 11-19-2010 at 11:11 AM..
Reason: typo
Are you assuming that David actually wrote this psalm and that he was referring to himself?
David wrote the Psalm and was referring to Jehovah saying to his lord (the Messiah) "Sit at my right hand..."
Quote:
>>When Jesus claimed to be the Messiah, He claimed to be Jehovah God. And the Jews understood that claim.<<
Only according to John's gosepl written 95 AD or later. The earlier written gospels Matthew, Mark, Luke and the Acts of the Apostles are clear that Jesus was the messiah through whom God, not Jesus, worked signs. Also note, that Jesus is always "raised from the dead" by God [like Lazarus] until we get to John's gospel.
Quote:
Acts 2:22-24
You who are Israelites, hear these words. Jesus the Nazorean was a man commended to you by God with mighty deeds, wonders, and signs, which God worked through him in your midst, as you yourselves know. This man, delivered up by the set plan and foreknowledge of God, you killed, using lawless men to crucify him. But God raised him up, releasing him from the throes of death.
Yes, however Jesus "the man" also had a Spirit. The Spirit of Christ, God, raised Jesus "the man" from the dead. Jesus' Spirit, as the Christ, raised himself:
Joh 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
Quote:
Note also that Jesus' immediate folowers remained an orthodox Temple worshipping sect within conventunal Juadism which would never have been allowed if they had claimed Jesus was divine.
The early church (His followers) called upon "the name" of Jesus:
1Co 1:2 Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:
To "call upon" means to invoke for help.
Rom 10:13 for every one--whoever shall call upon the name of the Lord, he shall be saved.'
It's taken from Joel:
Joe 2:32 And it hath come to pass, Every one who calleth in the name of Jehovah is delivered, For in mount Zion and in Jerusalem there is an escape, As Jehovah hath said, And among the remnants whom Jehovah is calling!
When the church called on "the name" (Jehovah) they were calling on Jesus Christ. The early church made NO distinction between Jesus Christ (as the Christ) and "the name", the proper name of God:ְיהָוֹה, yehōwāh, or as we often translate it: Jehovah.
Please register to post and access all features of our very popular forum. It is free and quick. Over $68,000 in prizes has already been given out to active posters on our forum. Additional giveaways are planned.
Detailed information about all U.S. cities, counties, and zip codes on our site: City-data.com.