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"Then the King will say to the people on his right, "Come, you that are blessed by my Father! Come and possess the kingdom which has been prepared for you ever since the creation of the world. I was hungry and you fed me, thirsty and you gave me a drink; I was a stranger and you received me in your homes, naked and you clothed me; I was sick and you took care of me, in prison and you visited me.'
The righteous will then answer him, "When, Lord, did we ever see you hungry and feed you, or thirsty and give you a drink? 38 When did we ever see you a stranger and welcome you in our homes, or naked and clothe you? 39 When did we ever see you sick or in prison, and visit you?'
"The King will reply, "I tell you, whenever you did this for one of the least important of these followers of mine, you did it for me!'"
This will vary from translation to translation (again, those ol' devil-translations) but perhaps the original Greek is still intact in a few. Notice the bold: "followers of Mine". That implies that Jesus was saying , "Inasmuch as you helped the least of My family of believers in Me", which certainly would not include down-and-out Buddists or Islamists or even atheists. Many theologians hold that Corinthians 6 only applies to Christian versus Christian disputes, but does not apply Christian versus non-Christian disputes. Carrying that one step further, might Jesus in Matthew 25 have been speaking only of destitute Christians? If not, why didn't Jesus in Matt. 25 specify ALL of mankind, rather than just His brethren? Some will respond with the parable of the Good Samatarian, but my question goes to the specific designation of type of person Jesus singled out in His admonishment in Matt. 25.
Carrying that one step further, might Jesus in Matthew 25 have been speaking only of destitute Christians? If not, why didn't Jesus in Matt. 25 specify ALL of mankind, rather than just His brethren? Some will respond with the parable of the Good Samatarian, but my question goes to the specific designation of type of person Jesus singled out in His admonishment in Matt. 25.
Maybe Jesus called them "brethren" precisely so that we could know that all strangers, sick, thristy, hungry, naked, and prisoners are the least of Christ's brethren. And yes, I think the good samaritan scripture applies. There will always be people who say "who is my neighbor" or in this case "who is my brother"
Gal 6:10 "As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all men, especially unto them who are of the household of faith."
Mat 5:43 "Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbour, and hate thine enemy."
Rom 12:14 "Bless them which persecute you: bless, and curse not."
Luk 6:28 "Bless them that curse you, and pray for them which despitefully use you."
Mat 5:44 "But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;"
There are a few verses that i believe answer the OP ...
Is telling people that God hates them and that they are going to be tortured for eternity a blessing or a curse?
But then why does Paul warn us not to sue a Christian brother in court, which implies it's ok to sue a non-Christian? And many Christian teachers say it's ok to sue a non-Christian, especially if one has a legitimate cause like they've been seriously injured in an auto accident?
But then why does Paul warn us not to sue a Christian brother in court, which implies it's ok to sue a non-Christian? And many Christian teachers say it's ok to sue a non-Christian, especially if one has a legitimate cause like they've been seriously injured in an auto accident?
Implies or assumes does not say that it is ok to sue a non-christian.
Thrillobyte you know what the easiest way to live is ? Do not be a respecter of persons and love everyone by seeing everyone has God see's us.
I agree .......
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