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I have a friend who claims to have a revelation from God that the second commandment about graven images means that we cannot have any form of any image of anything in God's creation in our homes (paintings, statutes etc.) because to admire them is to worship them. Here is what he said:
***********
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth : <-
5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: <- for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me;
The second as stated explicitly says to NOT make unto thee any graven images. I am not really smart so when this came up again, I had to look up what the a colon means and it supports what the Holy Spirit taught me about this commandment a long time ago.
Usage of the colon [ : ]
As with many other punctuation marks, the usage of colon varies among
languages and, for a given language, among historical periods. As a
rule, however, a colon informs the reader that what follows proves and
explains, or simply enumerates elements of what is referred to before.
The following classification of the functions that a colon may have,
given by Luca Serianni (a pioneer of the colon) for Italian usage,[1]
is generally valid for English and many other languages:
• syntactical-deductive: introduces the logical consequence, or
effect, of a fact stated before
Make or have a graven image: you will admire and worship it
Do not make a graven image: you will not admire or worship it "********
Dear English major - I know this is baloney but I do not have the knowledge to explain why it is incorrect. As I understand it, the colon usage in the second commandment is to reflect that the next two sentences are part of the whole commandment. (linkage) Can you help?
June just looked up those two passages from Exodus in at least 8 different bible translations. Only one had a colon.
What exactly is your question???
Signed,
Not An English Major But Learned How To Write At One Time.
--Was raised by the "Miss Manners" of grammer! June's mother was an English teacher, so it was "All things grammatically correct at all times" for June, forever and always! Amen!
June just looked up those two passages from Exodus in at least 8 different bible translations. Only one had a colon.
Well, that wont wash because he is KJV only -
Quote:
What exactly is your question???
HE WROTE:
Quote:
• syntactical-deductive: introduces the logical consequence, or
effect, of a fact stated before
Make or have a graven image: you will admire and worship it
Do not make a graven image: you will not admire or worship it "********
That is how he thinks it must read according to his revelation - that the colon introduces a logical consequence - but of course he must change the wording to make it read as he wants it to read.
[quote]Signed,
Not An English Major But Learned How To Write At One Time.
I was hoping for someone with a solid foundation in the technical aspect of the colon's use in that verse to prove his revelation is impossible in a grammatical sense.
Harold, whether one uses a colon or a semi-colon in those verses, I don't think it changes the content (your friend's revelation) nor would either one be grammatically incorrect.
-You might want to run this buy the folks up in the Writer's Forum, however...
Harold, whether one uses a colon or a semi-colon in those verses, I don't think it changes the content (your friend's revelation) nor would either one be grammatically incorrect.
Clear as mud! Which of the following list of colon use applies to the KJV usage in the 2nd commandment? My friend is trying to force it to mean "introduces the....effect of a fact stated before" as in "syntactical-deductive" use of the colon.
It seems to me that would be impossible and he is just grasping at straws to prove his revelation - clinging to the words "logical consequence or effect".
Verse 4 would be "the fact stated before:"
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth :
And supposedly this (5) would be "the logical consequence or effect being introduced:"
5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them :
How could "Thou shalt not bow down and serve them:" be the logical consequence or effect of verse 4? It is an additional command in sequence not an effect or consequence.
I can see that but I cannot prove it - or explain how the colon actually is being used in technical terms. Grrrrrrrrr
HK
syntactical-deductive: introduces the logical consequence, or effect, of a fact stated before
There was only one possible explanation: the train had never arrived.
syntactical-descriptive: introduces a description—in particular, makes explicit the elements of a set
I have three sisters: Catherine, Sarah, and Mary.
appositive: introduces a sentence with the role of apposition with respect to the previous one
segmental: introduces a direct speech, in combination with quotation marks and dashes. The segmental function was once a common means of indicating an unmarked quotation on the same line. The following example is from Fowler's grammar book, The King’s English:
Benjamin Franklin proclaimed the virtue of frugality: a penny saved is a penny earned.
Just tell your friend that the colon is a major part of the digestive system.
Well, I think he could use a high colonic (theologically speaking of course)
HK
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Which of the following list of colon use applies to the KJV usage in the 2nd commandment? My friend is trying to force it to mean "introduces the....effect of a fact stated before" as in "syntactical-deductive" use of the colon.
Grrrrrrrrr
