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From what I see on this board, it seems like a lot of people downplay the Hispanic presence of Dallas and Houston, while . Both Dallas and Houston are plurality Hispanic, with most of their suburbs having a large Hispanic presence too. And to my understanding, both are receiving more Hispanic migrants than San Antonio.
But it's not just Houston and Dallas. Amarillo, Odessa-Midland, Lubbock, Austin, Fort Worth, Corpus Christi, etc. all have huge Hispanic presence. Yet San Antonio is treated by this board as if it's the center of Mexican/Hispanic culture in Texas.
Sure San Antonio might have more historic ties to Mexico, but I would argue that it's not very relevant in 2019. Migration patterns are not based on the way things were in 1836 or whenever.
I don't know much about these cities other than they're in Texas, but if San Antonio's ties go back two centuries I should think such a deeply rooted heritage would be more evident in the cultural landscape than in cities where Hispanics have only begun to imprint their heritage by comparison.
I don't know much about these cities other than they're in Texas, but if San Antonio's ties go back two centuries I should think such a deeply rooted heritage would be more evident in the cultural landscape than in cities where Hispanics have only begun to imprint their heritage by comparison.
Hispanics make up over 40% of both Houston and Dallas, so I doubt that their cultural impact over there is in its infancy.
Hispanics make up over 40% of both Houston and Dallas, so I doubt that their cultural impact over there is in its infancy.
A transplanted culture gradually transforming a pre-existing one in the present tense would certainly be in its infancy compared to a city rooted in that same culture from its inception centuries ago.
Again, I don't know much about these places so I'm granting the premises of your question for the sake of this discussion. I don't actually know if your premises are true or not so I don't know if my explanations borne from those premises bear any resemblance to what these cities are actually like.
A transplanted culture gradually transforming a pre-existing one in the present tense would certainly be in its infancy compared to a city rooted in that same culture from its inception centuries ago.
Again, I don't know much about these places so I'm granting the premises of your question for the sake of this discussion. I don't actually know if your premises are true or not so I don't know if my explanations borne from those premises bear any resemblance to what these cities are actually like.
Both are still American cities but Houston and Dallas arguably have more of a non-assimilated Hispanic cultural presence.
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Originally Posted by Gaylord_Focker
I'm not sure that's true, it jsut doesn't come up. But maybe the fact their names are anglo rather than Hispanic is a factor?
I actually think what you're saying about the names is true. So Spanish named cities would automatically register to them as being more Hispanic. I wonder if that also applies to Amarillo, though.
Both are still American cities but Houston and Dallas arguably have more of a non-assimilated Hispanic cultural presence.
I actually think what you're saying about the names is true. So Spanish named cities would automatically register to them as being more Hispanic. I wonder if that also applies to Amarillo, though.
Most people don't know Amarillo is a Spanish word.
Believe it or not but in 1850 the hispanic population was less than 2%. There appears to be an acceleration of Hispanic residents in the 1920s, around WWII and again in the late 1960s. From that point forward the percentage of hispanic residents as a portion of the total population continues to rise at a higher level.
I read somewhere else on the net that currently for every 10 new residents of Texas, 9 are Hispanic/Latino.
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