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I was just wondering about the Pretender To The Throne - is that what they call the current royal descendant who was supposed to be king if France was still a monarchy? Are they allowed to reside in, or even to enter France? Or are they banished from the country forever. I remember a few years ago there was a Pretender To The Throne who was in a freak accident and died, and then his son took over, well assumed, the "title" of Pretender. I may have it wrong. I wonder if they are still wealthy or at least have some titles attached to their birthright.
Heirs of the Capet dynasty haven't used "Pretender to the Throne..." in about one or two decades now.
Thank you for the list! It's difficult to find people that know anything about French history, and on this thread the posters know so much, it's a great resource to come to.
That is not true, just use "Google" or any decent search engine and you'll find volumes about the history of France including the ancien regime monarchs.
Out of curiosity--isn't the Orleanists' claim to the French throne more accepted than the Legitimists' claim to the French throne? After all, there is a little thing called the Treaty of Utrecht, and in addition, the Orleanists appear to have a greater family and historical connection to France than the Legitimists do (after all, the Legitimist claimants to the French throne lived in Spain for the vast majority of the last 300 years, whereas this is not true of the Orleanists).
And no, just because an heir or branch of a royal house resides outside of a county does not disqualify them from inheriting a throne. It is how the Bourbons of Spain got that throne (after a long, bloody and expensive war), in the first place.
That is not true, just use "Google" or any decent search engine and you'll find volumes about the history of France including the ancien regime monarchs.
I've been doing research and it's been fascinating seeing all the information that is out there. I didn't know they stopped using the term "pretender to the throne." Thanks!
I've been doing research and it's been fascinating seeing all the information that is out there. I didn't know they stopped using the term "pretender to the throne." Thanks!
I didn't think royal pretenders usually called themselves pretenders.
That is a word normally used by their opponents. The pretender himself usually just calls himself King, or maybe "de jure king" or similar.
So, any conclusions? Was the last king dismissed by the revolution, or did the allies put another person from that royal-family on the throne again after Napoleon lost the war? Thanks
I didn't think royal pretenders usually called themselves pretenders.
That is a word normally used by their opponents. The pretender himself usually just calls himself King, or maybe "de jure king" or similar.
Sorry but the counts of Paris used "pretender to the throne of France" just as the Stuarts did for England until they finally died out.
Persons cannot call themselves "king" or "queen" where a monarchy has not existed for >200 years. It also becomes difficult when there isn't a direct and undisputed claimant as with the Bourbons. However the throne or crown if you believe the old ways are forever, who sits upon or whose head is placed however is another matter.
When Louis XVI was judicially murdered it created a demise in the crown and his son became Louis XVII, that is all pretty clear. However after the young king's murder by neglect there was again a demise in the crown and the throne passed according to House rules.
1. And no, just because an heir or branch of a royal house resides outside of a county does not disqualify them from inheriting a throne. It is how the Bourbons of Spain got that throne (after a long, bloody and expensive war), in the first place.
1. No, but it might make their claim less valid than the claim of another royal house/branch which has a closer recent connection to this country.
Also, the Treaty of Utrecht might disqualify the Spanish Bourbons from becoming the monarchs of France in a restored French monarchy.
2. The thing is that I don't see why one's descendants should be disqualified from the line of succession simply due to what this individual himself did.
By that rationale, wouldn't the claims of Cyril Vladimirovich (1876-1938) and of his son, Vladimir Cyrillovich (1917-1992), to the former Russian throne be considered invalid/less valid as well? (I think that Cyril supported the Russian Revolution in 1917, which resulted in the overthrow of the Russian monarchy.)
So, any conclusions? Was the last king dismissed by the revolution, or did the allies put another person from that royal-family on the throne again after Napoleon lost the war? Thanks
No, after Napoleon III got overthrown in 1870, France established a republican system of government.
No, after Napoleon III got overthrown in 1870, France established a republican system of government.
To reinforce that fact no small amount of property belonging to the Imperial or Royal throne was sold off by the French government. This included one of the most spectacular jewel sales of all time as much of the Crown Jewels of France were sold at auction. Something many came to regret later and thus efforts have been launched to reclaim. The French government IIRC sent bidders to the estate auction sale of Elizabeth Taylor's jewels to fetch back an item that once was part of the CJ collection.
The rationale behind the sales was to eliminate anything for royalists and or those supporting a restoration of a monarchy to rally round.
One supposes if the Bourbons had been less unyielding and learned from the past rather than attempting to impose it upon France, some sort of constitutional monarchy *might* have worked.
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French History
