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Yeah, I've mentioned it here before. Back before the 19th century French was the global language of choice. Everyone that was anyone spoke it. Seems it replaced Latin in the 16th or 17th century.
For centuries the two languages any "educated" person was supposed to have mastered were French and Latin.
American passports like many others around the world have both native language (in this case English), and French.
French influence is evident in England/GB many ways. The prime example is surnames.
Use of "d'" or "de" as a preposition does not exist in English, but of course it does in French. Thus those with "of" (which is what "de or du mean") before their surnames indicates a French linage that *may* go back to the time of when Normans were running things in England.
French influence also explains surnames that are pronounced differently than their English spelling. Most famous example of this is Mrs. Hyacinth Bucket insisting her husband's last name is pronounced "Bouquet"
Another thing to remember is nearly universally nobility, wealthy and even upper middle classes well into the 20th century all learned French. This was true nearly universally over western and eastern Europe well as Canada and USA.
Leaving aside that French had long been the de facto universal language of diplomacy (now largely being replaced by English), it was one of the acceptable languages for "ladies" to speak other than their own native tongue. This would prove to be important as high born females (royalty, nobility or whatever) married outside their countries and were thus shipped off to foreign lands.
There was also all the sensibilities attached to French culture, manners and so forth. Bestowing upon those who spoke the language all sorts of chic (think Jackie Bouvier Kennedy). In fact a bonus point to Jack Kennedy in favor JFK marrying Jackie was her French Catholic background; far more acceptable to society then than his own Irish roots.
One of the other main languages taught to boys/men at least was Latin, especially in England/GB. Females not so much, but never the less a foreign language does have benefits. For one thing it allowed high born/educated persons to converse amongst themselves with some sort of privacy in a time when servants were ever present or nearby.
Another thing to remember is nearly universally nobility, wealthy and even upper middle classes well into the 20th century all learned French. This was true nearly universally over western and eastern Europe well as Canada and USA.
Leaving aside that French had long been the de facto universal language of diplomacy (now largely being replaced by English), it was one of the acceptable languages for "ladies" to speak other than their own native tongue. This would prove to be important as high born females (royalty, nobility or whatever) married outside their countries and were thus shipped off to foreign lands.
There was also all the sensibilities attached to French culture, manners and so forth. Bestowing upon those who spoke the language all sorts of chic (think Jackie Bouvier Kennedy). In fact a bonus point to Jack Kennedy in favor JFK marrying Jackie was her French Catholic background; far more acceptable to society then than his own Irish roots.
One of the other main languages taught to boys/men at least was Latin, especially in England/GB. Females not so much, but never the less a foreign language does have benefits. For one thing it allowed high born/educated persons to converse amongst themselves with some sort of privacy in a time when servants were ever present or nearby.
The effects of this survive today. I've spoken about this in other threads.
Most highfalutin words in use today in the English language are French. Lots of English speakers today litter their writing with lofty french words and italicized French expressions, thinking that adds substance to their writing. That's the legacy of Norman conquest of England, generational brainwash that survives today not just in England but in all the former Colonies.
Because William the Conqueror conquered England and forced the NORMAN brand of “French”as the upper class language
William was not king of France which was just a large province or separate state in what now is the country of France...
There were English/Anglo-Saxon nobility that likely spoke French as well as their own native blend of Norse and Saxon languages—but most of them lost their lands and their privileged ownership of lands after the Norman Conquest...since that was the purpose of his conquest—to take over land/power...
The Welsh still spoke Welsh as their language and modern Welsh still do
with the Scots speaking Gaelic
And English as we know it didn’t even exist at that time...
Ever read the Canterbury Tales in “English”?
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