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Old 12-14-2010, 07:38 PM
 
Location: Las Flores, Orange County, CA
26,329 posts, read 93,793,178 times
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Would it be more fair if the election process (somehow, no specific details) provided a voter the ability to cast a number of votes proportionate to the amount of taxes he paid? So for a simple example, a person who paid $20,000 in taxes may cast 200 votes and a person who pay $100 in taxes would cast one vote. Or something like 0-$1000 in taxes is one vote, $1000-$5000 is 5 votes, $5000-$10000 is 10 votes, etc...whatever. Let's not discuss details, let's only discuss philosophy.

Another option is while everyone gets to cast one vote, everyone pays exactly the same amount of taxes. Would that be fair?

How do corporations work? Do people who own more shares of stock have more say in how the corporation is run?
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Old 12-14-2010, 08:05 PM
 
Location: University City, Philadelphia
22,632 posts, read 14,952,281 times
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That is an interesting proposal. I think we already have a little bit of that now, because wealthy individuals and corporations have greater access to elected officials because of their ability to contribute to election campaigns. As a result, people with little or no money have less influence on government than "special interests" that have huge financial resources to campaign, lobby, and buy support the politicians.
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