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For the Constitutionally ignorant who might be willing to make themselves a little less ignorant through taking in new (to them) information, the United States Supreme Court ruled long ago (1968, to be precise) allowed that government can prohibit commercial discrimination regardless of the religious excuse served up to justify that discrimination.
Maurice Bessinger owned BBQ restaurants in South Carolina. He refused to comply with laws prohibiting commercial discrimination based on race, asserting his religious right to do so. He was sued, and the Fourth Circuit Court of Appeals ruled that he was compelled by law to serve customers regardless of race. When he then appealed to the USSC, the high court refused to grant cert, thereby allowing the Circuit Court ruling to become binding precedent.
He was avowedly pro-slavery, and distributed tracts to that effect to his customers - replete, of course, with Biblical citations to demonstrate that his beliefs and his refusal to serve blacks were religious. http://www.thestate.com/news/business/article13839323.html
Now, before the bleating that sexual orientation is not race commences, that's not the issue - the issue is whether or not government can prohibit commercial discrimination against any class of people regardless of the treasured religious beliefs of the would-be discriminators. And the answer is an obvious and resounding YES.
Oh, and for those of you peddling the "But, when a business is opened before an anti-discrimination law is passed, that business shouldn't have to follow the law!" nonsense, Mr. Bessinger opened his first whites-only restaurant in 1953, over a decade before the Civil Rights Act - which required that he not turn away customers based on race - became law. Can we please get a show of hands from people who think that he should have been allowed to continue to be anti-black in his business practices? Anyone?
She did NOT discriminate against anyone. She openly and happily sells flowers to gay people. She declined to provide services in support of AN EVENT that was in celebration of Homosexuality. It would be no different than refusing to provide flowers to a KKK rally or a Planned Parenthood Fundraising event. THE EVENT is the object of the service, NOT the individuals.
She did NOT discriminate against anyone. She openly and happily sells flowers to gay people. She declined to provide services in support of AN EVENT that was in celebration of Homosexuality. It would be no different than refusing to provide flowers to a KKK rally or a Planned Parenthood Fundraising event. THE EVENT is the object of the service, NOT the individuals.
Does she sell wedding flowers to other people?
If so then refusal to sell them to this couple is discrimination.
You miss the point. Weddings are not a protected class. Thus, you cannot be accused of discrimination against a wedding.
But the people being refused service are in some states. None of the cases was about not wanting to do weddings at all, but about not wanting to do weddings for a specific couple, a gay couple.
A hot dog is not a protected class, but you can not refuse to sell a hot dog to a Jew and sell them to everyone else.
But the people being refused service are in some states. None of the cases was about not wanting to do weddings at all, but about not wanting to do weddings for a specific couple, a gay couple.
A hot dog is not a protected class, but you can not refuse to sell a hot dog to a Jew and sell them to everyone else.
She didn't refuse to sell flowers to these people.
So can she legally not sell flowers to interracial weddings?
There is no religious proscription regarding interracial marriages.
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