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How do you conflate this line of thought with the homeowner's association raising money for a new community pool? In that case, Amy gets to decide on the pool, not the tenant. I don't see the difference.
The HOA has a contract or agreement with the property owner, which is Amy. That's why Amy gets to decide on the pool. In this case, the renters are irrelevant.
FYI, I live in such a situation now. I rent a home in a HOA community. They do all types of things for which I, personally, am never notified. The ultimate responsibility for the home (and community) rests with those that own the property. Hence the name, home owners association. If I want a say, I need to become an owner.
Yeah... I do understand that the added tax will eventually be passed along to the residents whether they rent or own, but shouldn't the decision on whether to raise the tax or not be left to the homeowners and not the tenants?
Depends on where Amy is registered to vote. Only registered voters are allowed to vote in the town elections.
After all, I have an interest in how this nation is run, so I should be able to vote in the house and senate leaderships' districts and states. Correct?
Let's say Anytown, USA, is holding a vote to decide whether or not to raise property taxes by some amount to fund the construction of a new school.
If Amy owns a house and rents it out to Bob and his family, but doesn't live in Anytown herself, who should be making the decision on whether or not to raise property taxes.
It sure seems to me like Amy should be the one voting... not Bob. But I'm pretty sure Bob would get to vote, not Amy (though I guess it depends where Amy is registered to vote; Let's just assume she is registered to vote elsewhere).
I don't really see a difference between this situation and if a Homeowner's Association were to vote on improving some aspect of the community. In that case, the property owners get a vote (and quite often weighted percentages based on the amount of square feet they own in the neighborhood/building or something).
I understand one is a private and the other is public, but philosophically it seems the same.
Thoughts?
Amy made a decision not live in Anytown. Everyone knows that the prerequisite for voting in an area is residing in that area. If Amy wanted a say in property taxes in Anytown she should have chosen to live either in the house she rented to Bob or in another property within city limits.
The voting laws make sense. Its people who live within a community that should be making vital decisions about police and fire protection, schools, parks, and municipal services.
Amy made a decision not live in Anytown. Everyone knows that the prerequisite for voting in an area is residing in that area. If Amy wanted a say in property taxes in Anytown she should have chosen to live either in the house she rented to Bob or in another property within city limits.
The voting laws make sense. Its people who live within a community that should be making vital decisions about police and fire protection, schools, parks, and municipal services.
I respectfully disagree. If we were talking about a sales tax or something else that RESIDENTS deal with, then the RESIDENTS should be making the decision. However, if the tax is on PROPERTY OWNERS, then the PROPERTY OWNERS should be making the decision. IMO.
I respectfully disagree. If we were talking about a sales tax or something else that RESIDENTS deal with, then the RESIDENTS should be making the decision. However, if the tax is on PROPERTY OWNERS, then the PROPERTY OWNERS should be making the decision. IMO.
You can say that all you want. It won't make it law. You want a vote, then become a legal resident. It's that simple.
You can say that all you want. It won't make it law. You want a vote, then become a legal resident. It's that simple.
I'm aware of the law. I am asking if people think it is fair. At one point the Stamp Act was law. Taxation without representation is one of the tenets that the revolutionary war was fought over.
We had non-resident voting in some MD municipalities. The problem developed that the non-residents were making decisions detrimental to the interests of the residents (one trick was that investors were listing 20 or 30 people on a deed so they could all vote).
Non-resident voting was declared illegal in this Federal District Court case:
I respectfully disagree. If we were talking about a sales tax or something else that RESIDENTS deal with, then the RESIDENTS should be making the decision. However, if the tax is on PROPERTY OWNERS, then the PROPERTY OWNERS should be making the decision. IMO.
This would be another way to concentrate power for the wealthy and dilute the power of the poor.
Let's say Amy owns a 25-unit apartment building. What you want to do is allow Amy to vote only while the 25+ residents of the area are disenfranchised.
Even worse would be if Amy owns 25 different rental houses. You seem to want to let Amy vote 25 times while the renters have no vote. In this scenario, Absentee Amy would have 25 times more votes than a person who owned just one house in Anytown.
As pointed out earlier, the RESIDENTS of the area pay the taxes directly if they own the home, or indirectly if they rent.
I'm aware of the law. I am asking if people think it is fair. At one point the Stamp Act was law. Taxation without representation is one of the tenets that the revolutionary war was fought over.
Strangers on the internet thinking it's fair means nothing. If it bothers you that much, contact the legislators.
Personally, I think the law makes sense. Other people will think it makes sense. Perhaps you are the outlier??
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